Saturday, August 4, 2018

CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE: Class XII Elementary Structural Mechanics Question Paper - 2018

CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE: Class XII Elementary Structural Mechanics Question Paper - 2018

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(Download) CBSE: Class XII Elementary Structural Mechanics Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 04 Aug 2018 04:45 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Elementary Structural Mechanics

Subject : Elementary Structural Mechanics

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

Attempt any 14 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

Questions :

SECTION A

1.For a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material, the number of elastic constants required to raise stress and strain is
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six

2.When a metal regains its original shape when stress acting upon it is removed, the metal is said to have
(a) Ductility
(b) Plasticity
(c) Malleability
(d) Elasticity

3.The length between the supports of a Charpy impact test specimen is
(a) 60 mm
(b) 50 mm
(c) 40 mm
(d) 30 mm

4.Modulus of elasticity can be found out by the following relationship :
(a) Stress + Strain
(b) Stress – Strain
(c) Stress × Strain
(d) Stress / Strain

5.The term ‘Young’s modulus’ is used
(a) only for young persons
(b) only for old persons
(c) for young and old persons
(d) None of these

6.If a force acts on a material, it sets up some resistance to the deformation. This resistance is known as
(a) Stress
(b) Strain
(c) Elasticity
(d) Modulus of elasticity   

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(Download) CBSE: Class XII Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 04 Aug 2018 04:32 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices

Subject : Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

Attempt any thirteen questions. Each question carries one mark. Select the correct answer. 

Questions :

SECTION A

1.Which medium is/are used in a communication system ?
(1) Fibre optic
(2) Atmosphere
(3) Coaxial cable
(4) All of the above 

2.If the frequency range of an electronic signal is high, what will be its bandwidth ?
(1) High
(2) Low
(3) Medium
(4) No relation 

3.Through which medium does ‘space wave’ propagation take place ?
(1) Ionosphere
(2) Troposphere
(3) Over the surface of the Earth
(4) Waveguide 

4.In a Cellular Radio System, if the cell size is increased, the transmitter power will be
(1) Decreased
(2) Increased
(3) No change
(4) Exponentially decreased 

5.In a satellite, how much is the intensity of downlink signals in comparison to uplink received signals ?
(1) No relation
(2) Very high
(3) Very low
(4) Equal 

6.The ‘Elevation’ of a satellite is that angle which the satellite makes
(1) With the horizon
(2) Clockwise from North
(3) Clockwise from South
(4) With the equator 

7.In a satellite, for transmission and reception of main signals, how many antennas are there ?
(1) One (common for both)
(2) Two (separate for each)
(3) One or two (depends on satellite)
(4) Three 

8.With reference to mobile phones, what is the full form of UIM ?
(1) User Interface Multiplexing
(2) User Interface Module
(3) Unique Identity Module
(4) User Identity Module

9.What is the frequency range on which mobile phones operate ?
(1) 300 MHz to 3000 MHz
(2) 825 MHz to 890 MHz
(3) 3 MHz to 30 MHz
(4) 100 MHz to 1000 MHz

10.What is the shape of ‘cells’ in a Base Master System ?
(1) Circular
(2) Hexagonal
(3) Square
(4) Triangular

11.The components are soldered and desoldered on a PCB, by an SMD Rework Station through
(1) Hot Air
(2) Direct Heating
(3) Dielectric Heating
(4) None of the above

12.For voice signals, what type of modulation is used in a mobile phone ?
(1) Amplitude Modulation
(2) Frequency Modulation
(3) Phase Modulation
(4) None of the above 

13.The radiating power of a mobile phone
(1) remains constant
(2) changes like a sine wave
(3) changes with time
(4) is controlled by a microprocessor 

14.Which is the first device (equipment) best suited to repair a wet mobile phone ?
(1) Multimeter
(2) CRO
(3) Hot air gun
(4) Soldering station

15.To become a successful mobile repair technician, the ‘Technical Support Guidance’ can be obtained from
(1) Internet
(2) Training Institutes
(3) Books
(4) All of the above   

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Courtesy: CBSE

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Language Comprehensive Test (LCT)

Posted: 04 Aug 2018 03:40 AM PDT

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Language Comprehensive Test (LCT)

 Q.1–5

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add genes to corn, soya beans and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects of herbicides. Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops casier to grow and cheaper. But many consumers and those who keep an eye on food–safety worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to out health and the enviroment. These opponents say the GMOs have been linked to depression, allergies and even cancer. Uniess we have been eating food labelled 100 percent organic – which means that it must be GMO–free–we probably have GMOs in our body system already!

1.  Adding genes to crops will

(1) Help in better crop–research.  

(2) Make them resistant to insect attacks.

(3) Make the foods ‘organic’.

(4) Give them a stable price in the markets.

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   It is written in second line of passage that scientists add genes to protect the crops from insects.

2. The “.....loudest public food fight .....” suggests that

(1) People do not like the Crop Scicentists.

(2) Crop Scientists are almost fighting in the streets.

(3) There is a great competition in growing GMOs.

(4) There are strong protests against GMOs

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   Last lines of passage making it clear that people are still against of GMO food.

3.   Those who support GMOs say that

(1) Growing the crops poses may challenges now.

(2) They do not protect the fields from insect–attacks.

(3) They bring down the prices of the crops.

(4) They help in carrying out more experiments with better results.

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   This answer is clear from the line, ‘Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops easier to grow and cheaper’.

4.   Those who are opposed to GMOs say that

(1) The costs of the crops will not change much in the markets.

(2) The pattern of growing and harvesting of crops will change.

(3) Such crop–research has been stopped.

(4) These crops can cause serious harm to our health.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   This answer is from the line ‘opponents say that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our health’.

5.   ‘Organic foods’ according to the passage are those are

(1) already there is our bodies as GMOs      

(2) grown in well-organised farms

(3) grown free from GMOs      

(4) helpful to our body’s various organs

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   In last line it is given that Organic food is grown free from GMOs.

6-10  Read the following passage and answer  the questions given after it.

‘We are living in the golden are of answer’. Of cuurs information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you or embrrass you. Your iphone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search  for addresses  as we use the GPS.  We spend  rnore  time connecting  with friends on Facebook than connecting with real friends. Still, pop-up ads, internet fradus and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant access to infinite information.  Today we have better tools for searching,  analysing or evaluting through data than before. Aand what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality of our lives.

6.   The passage primarily discusses

(1) the advantage of technology  

(2) criticism of technology

(3) the age of technology        

(4) the evalution of the pros and cons of technology

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   The whole para is describing the good and bad effect of technology.

7.   ‘The golden age of answers’ implies that there are

(1) diverse technologies available in the present time      

(2) opportunities to connet with friends on Facebook

(3) better tools for searching information   

(4) pop-up ads to provide information

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Only ans (3) is giving an appropriate information about ‘golden age’.

8.   We pay a price for this revolution as we

(1) only receive useless information      

(2) forget our identities

(3) get agitated

(4) surrender our privacy

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   As information can be received from anywhere so it is clear that we have surrendered our privacy.

9.   This ‘revolution’ has brought

(1) radical changes to our lives.     

(2) success in our lives.

(3) rotation in our lives.   

(4) merely problems in our lives.

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   This is clear by the things which are explained that revolution has also caused some damages.

10.     The author’s attitude to technology according to this passage is

(1) not clear.    

(2) positive.     

(3) negative.    

(4) insignificant.

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   Last line of author suggest that he has positive attitude towards technology.

Q. 11-15 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after  it.

For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going to door volunteering with an assistant and a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high rise buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question, ‘Any leaky taps? We are providing a free service.’

Surti is a multifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books – novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artist and a cartoonist. In 2007, Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his won water conservation NGO that caters the buildings in Mira Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortages and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai, Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families, they can’t afford to pay a  plumber but in most middle- class families, the problem is one of sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a friend’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why it wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial.’

11.     Surti’s primary mission is to

(1) provide free plumbers.   

(2) check wastage of water

(3) supply free water.   

(4) close running taps.

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   Whole passage is suggesting this thing that it is the main motive of Abid Surti to check the wastage of water.

12.     People may be more willing to accept Surit’s services as he

(1) provides services assisted by a plumber.       

(2) runs a water conservation NGO.

(3) is a local person from Mumbai.   

(4) is on a mission.

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   Surti’s services are accepted because he provides services assisted by a plumber.

13.     Most middle-class families’ attitude to water conservation is due to their

(1) lack of knowledge.   

(2) lack of money.  

(3) lack of expertise.       

(4) lack of concern.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   Poor families don’t have money but middle class families attitude towards water problem is due to lack of concern.

14.     The work being done by Surit is significant because he

(1) runs an NGO in Mumbai.

(2) has several skills.

(3) is providing plumbing services.        

(4) is solving social problems.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   This work is significant because generally tape leakage in avoided due to not getting plumber for something so trivial. And Surti is doing social service by solving water problem.

15.     ‘spurred into action’ means

(1) emboldened to act.  

(2) volunteered to act.   

(3) keen to act.       

(4) encouraged to act.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Spurred into action means’ to encourage to act something.

Q. (16 to 17): The following five sentences come from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given.

Choose the right order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to complete the paragraph.

16.     S 1.  Normally ladybugs are sophisticated and voracious predators.

S 2.  ________________________________________________ S 3.  ________________________________________________ S 4.  ________________________________________________

S 5.  Then it creeps up and strikes, ripping the victim apart with its barbed mandibles.

P –   Once it has homed in on these signals, it switches its sensory scan to search for molecules released by the victim. Q –  A single individual may devour several thousands of victims in a lifetime.

R –   to find a victim, if first waves its antennae to detect chemicals that plants release when they are under attack by herbivorous insects.

Choose from the options given below :

(1) RPQ    

(2) PRQ    

(3) QRP  

(4) PQR

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   S1 is giving information about ladubugs and ‘Q’ is giving information what a ladybug can do, so answer will be ‘QRP’.

17.     S 1.  Years ago, the kids were all keen on ‘soda water powder’, soft drink mix that made carbonated beverages.

S 2.  ____________________________________________ S 3.  ____________________________________________ S 4.  ____________________________________________

S 5.  They began calling them Popsicles instead, and the treat was patented as such.

P –   Epperson cleverly sat on his invention, keeping it secret for 18 years, until he was in the position to make something of it.

Q –  One night in 1905, Frank Epperson accidentally left his drink out on the porch, and as it froze overnight, it was absolutely delicious by the morning.

R –   In 1923, he decided to patent his Epsicles (“Epp’s Icicles”), but his children refused to use that anme since none of them called their father Epp.

Choose from the options given below :

(1) PRQ   

(2) RPQ    

(3) RQP    

(4) QPR

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Q’ is linking with S1 because it is providing information how soda water was invented.

Q. (18-19) : The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the given option to complete it.

18.     A.      I used to think that boiling an egg would be a simple job until I came to live in the Himalayas.

B.       _______________________________________________________________________

C.       I don’t know if it’s the altitude or the density of the water, but it just won’t come to a boil in time for break fast.

1.

2.

(1) I found that just getting the water to boil was an achievement. (2) Boiling an egg in the Himalayas was fascinating.

(3) I could never find good eggs there.

(4) “Were the eggs also too hard?” I wondered.

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘A’ is linked with ‘1’ because it says that author came to know about difficulty of boiling egg when he came to live in the Himalayas.

 

19.

A.

Imagine a five-year old composing music and playing on a child-size violin.

 

B.

___________________________________________________________

 

C.

He was a young genius who grew up to be one of t he most creative composers of all time.

(1) This was something Mozart did.     (2) It is strange to find such a phenomenon.

(3) The child must have been some genius.      (4) This is simply impossible for us to think of

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   Answer is decided by ‘C’ as it has ‘He’ and he will be used for some person that is given in Answer ‘1’

 

Q. (20 – 29) : Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given,

20.     The journey in the run down bus over the pot-holed road felt almost like a ............................ ride. (1) train    (2) boat     (3) roller-coaster      (4) bicycle

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Run down bus is giving hint. Because ‘roller coaster’ also gives the same feeling when it comes down.

 

21.     The good old Ambassador cars are now considered ................................

(1) obsolete      (2) absolute      (3) obscure       (4) oblivious

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Obsolete’ means no longer produced or out of date.

 

22.     The report has been prepared well and hopefully it will be ........................ at the next board meeting. (1) shelved        (2) chaired       (3) tabled (4) grounded

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Tabled at means to lay (the topic) on the table for consideration.

 

23.     The Talent Search Examination is challenging but not frightening. Why don’t you take a ...................... at it ? (1) shot   (2) trial      (3) hit         (4) swipe

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Take a shot’ means to try to do something.

 

24.     Grandfather  has always been a figure of ......................... in our large family.

(1) authorised (2) authoritative     (3) authoritarian      (4) authority

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Authority’ word is noun that is most suitable after ‘figure of’

 

25.     She found Rashmi in the kitchen, looking old and ............................

(1) healthy       (2) weary   (3) busy    (4) in a hurry

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘Old and weary’ both will come together as she was working in kitchen and she was looking rather ‘tired (weary)’.

 

26.     Tax offenders were refused ...................... to leave the country.

(1) admission (2) submission         (3) information        (4) permission

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   admission, submission, information can not be answer. As ‘permission’ is needed to leave the country.

 

27.     A good driver will be very careful before carrying out a complex ...................

(1) movement (2) manoeuvre         (3) motion        (4) moment

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘manoeuvre’ means a movement or series of moves requiring skill and care.

 

28.     With the new Management taking over, there’s now a big ........................ hanging over the Company’s future. (1) thought (2) gossip   (3) discussion   (4) question mark

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   New management taking over, so it is a ‘big question mark’ now on company’s  future.

 

29.     The Coffee Room was ........................... into smoking and non-smoking areas.

(1) amalgamated   (2) considered (3) segregated (4) shared

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Coffee room was divided in two areas and ‘segregated’ means also ‘to divide’.

 

Q.(30-35) : Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms.

30.     For want of

(1) because of lack of      

(2) giving something wanted by another

(3) desiring something    

(4) because of fulfilling needs

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘for want of’ means ‘because of lack of something/resources’.

 

31.     Clown around

(1) make others feel silly and stupid       

(2) be an object of ridicule

(3) join a Circus company     

(4) behave  in a silly way

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Clown around’ means ‘behave in a funny or silly way’.

 

32.     Talk back

(1) answer rudely     

(2) talk behind a person’s back

(3) talk in a loud voice   

(4) reply to the questions asked

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Talk back’ means ‘Reply rudely or defiantly’.

 

33.     Run into

(1) meet someone by chance       

(2) start quarrelling

(3) make unexpected purchases  

(4) run from one place to another

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Run into’ Idiom means ‘Collide with’ or ‘To meet or find someone or something by chance’.

 

34.     blow one’s own trumpet

(1) to create music        

(2) to praise someone  

(3) to praise oneself        

(4) to feel happy

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘Blow one’s own trumpet’ means ‘to boast or praise oneself greatly’.

 

35.     To see eye to eye

(1) stare at someone        (2) examine someone’s eyes

(3) have the same opinion     (4) be cross-eyed

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘To see eye to eye’ means ‘To be able to come to an agreement’ or ‘have the same opinion’.

 

Q.36–43

In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option.

At Sri Venkateswara  Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............  besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............  ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon,  and (38) ............  camphor  – draws millions of devotees  (39) ............  this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............  for a bite of this holy (41) ............  . In 2009, it received international (42) ............  when its was given the unique global (43) ............  i.e. legal protection against imitation.

 

36.

(1) this

(2) these

(3) those

(4) their

Ans.

Sol.

(2)

here ‘laddus’ are

 

mentioned  so ‘these’ is used.

 

 

 

37.

(1) from

(2) of

(3) in

(4) with

Ans.

(4)

 

 

 

Sol.   ‘saturated’ word takes ‘with’ preposition with it.

 

38.

(1) edible

(2) fine

(3) light

(4) pious

Ans.

(1)

 

 

 

Sol.   the other things mentioned before this are edible and ‘camphor’ which is used in these laddus is also ‘edible’.

 

39.

(1) with

(2) to

(3) for

(4) from

Ans.

(2)

 

 

 

Sol.   devotees come ‘to’ this temple.

 

40.

(1) seen

(2) look

(3) eager

(4) find

Ans.

(3)

 

 

 

Sol.   All people remain ‘eager’ for a bite.

 

41.

(1) dish

(2) eat

(3) taste

(4) joy

Ans.

(1)

 

 

 

Sol.   ‘This holy’ is referring to ‘dish of laddus’.

 

42.

(1) taste

(2) fame

(3) claim

(4) love

Ans.

(2)

 

 

 

Sol.   These laddus have got international ‘fame’.

 

43.     (1) index                                    

(2) quality                              

(3) patent       

(4) reward

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   it was given a ‘patent’.

 

Q.44–47

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.

44.     Locacted close to Charminar,  the kilometer–long stretch of Laad Bazaar is ............  with shops selling bright in every hue and colour.

(1) came                                  

(2) discovered

(3) covered      

(4) filled

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   Laad bazaar in ‘filled with’ shops.

 

45.     I suggest you should ............ yourself with the rules before you join the meeting.

(1) familiar      

(2) familiarize

(3) familiarly     

(4) familiarity

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   We need a verb after ‘you should’ so ‘familiarize’ is the only answer.

 

46.     The child held the bag as tightly as if it were her most ............  possession.

(1) prize    

(2) prizy   

(3) prized

(4) prizely

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘prized’ past participle verb is needed here.

 

47.     The weakness in their defense has already cost them ............  this season.

(1) dear    

(2) dearly

(3) deary  

(4) dearness

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘dearly’ adverb is describing verb ‘cost’.

 

Q.48–50

Select the word which means the opposite of the given word.

48.     Undertake

(1) recognise    

(2) being   

(3) refuse

(4) rejoice

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘undertake’ means ‘promise to do something’ and opposite of this will be ‘refuse’.

 

49.     Hefty

(1) half–hearted      

(2) light     

(3) heavy

(4) halved

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘Hefty’ means ‘large and heavy’ and oposite of this will be ‘light’.

 

50.     Miniature

(1) manicure   

(2) massive      

(3) missive                              

(4) masculine

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘Miniature’ means ‘very sma

Courtesy: NTSE

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Mental Ability Test (MAT)

Posted: 03 Aug 2018 05:08 AM PDT

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Mental Ability Test (MAT)

 
4. Which of the following is a group of females?
(1) GCE (2) GEH (3) GCH (4) GHB
Sol. Ans. 3, G C H
 
5. In which department do three people work ?
(1) Operations
(2) Accounts
(3) Operations or Accounts
(4) Data inadequate
Sol. Ans. 2, accounts
 
6. What will be the position of A from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their income ?
(1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth
Sol. Ans. 2, Third
 
7. In which of the following departments does B work ?
(1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Administration (4) Data inadequate
Sol. Ans. 4, Data inadequate
 
8. Which of the following statements is definitely true ?
(1) B earns less than F and H (2) F earns more than B and E
(3) B earns more than E and C (4) B earns less than A and H
Sol. Ans. 4, B earns less than A and H.
 
Directions (Q.9 to Q.11) : Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as follows:
Input: these icons were taken out from the sea. Pass Codes
Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these
Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea
Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these
Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the
The pattern followed is as under : In the first step, the word which comes first in the dictionary is placed at the first place and the remaining words are written in a reverse order. In the second step, the word which comes second in the dictionary is placed at the second place and all words except the first and the second are written in a reverse order. The process continues in the same manner to give the pass codes for the subsequent batches.
 
9. What will be the pass code for the Batch V on a day, if the input is “four of the following five form a group” ?
(1) a five following form four group the of (2) a five following form group the of four
(3) a five following form four the of group (4) a five following form four group of the

(Download) CBSE: Class XII Taxtile Chemical Processing Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 03 Aug 2018 04:14 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Taxtile Chemical Processing

Subject : Taxtile Chemical Processing

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(i) All sections are compulsory.
(ii) Use diagrams wherever possible.

Questions :

SECTION A

1.Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word from the word list :
(a) Impurity in Wool __________
(b) Impurity in Silk __________
(c) For Acrylic Dyeing __________
(d) For dyeing of Protein Fibres __________
(e) Method of Resist Printing __________
(f) Important part of Print Paste __________

Word List :

(i) Thickening Agent
(ii) Acid Dyes
(iii) Suint
(iv) Screen
(v) Basic Dyes
(vi) Sericin
 

SECTION B

Write very short answers.

2. Write a short note on Plate Singeing.
3. Give a brief account of Winch dyeing machine.
4. Write a note on Duplex Printing.
5. Define Parchmentisation Finish.
OR
What do you understand by Antimicrobial Finish ?

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(Download) CBSE: Class XII Traditional Indian Textile Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 03 Aug 2018 04:01 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Traditional Indian Textile

Subject : Traditional Indian Textile

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(i) All sections are compulsory.
(ii) Use diagrams wherever possible.

Questions :

SECTION A

1.Fill in the blanks :

(a) The special tie-dyed textile from Rajasthan that is gifted to the mothers of newborn babies is ___________ .
(b) Kasuti embroidery is an auspicious craft practised in ___________ .
(c) Bagru, a small village in Rajasthan, is known for its ___________ block prints.
(d) The basic stitch used in Parsi embroidery is ___________ .
(e) The ___________ process is used to produce multi-coloured resist dot patterns on the fabric. 

2.State whether the following statements are True or False :

(a) Andhra Pradesh is famous for its pen-craft popularly known as kalamkari.
(b) The tie-dyed textiles produced in Rajasthan are known as bandhej.
(c) Abhla Bharat is an embroidery style carried out by the tribal communities of Gujarat.
(d) Coins, mango, brick and rosary beads are the commonly used motifs in chanderi saris.
(e) For making a print motif, the filling block is printed first followed by the outline block.  

SECTION B

Attempt all the questions in this section.

(a) What do blue and ochre yellow colours symbolize in Srikalahasti Kalamkari ?
(b) Differentiate between Lehariya and Mothra.
(c) Name four major centres of Bandhani in Gujarat.
(d) How is a constant flow of dye maintained in the kalam while doing kalamkari ?
(e) Why is Telia Rumal named as such ? 

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Wednesday, August 1, 2018

CBSE PORTAL : NTSE Sample Questions : हिन्दी भाषा मे प्रश्न

CBSE PORTAL : NTSE Sample Questions : हिन्दी भाषा मे प्रश्न

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NTSE Sample Questions : हिन्दी भाषा मे प्रश्न

Posted: 31 Jul 2018 11:33 PM PDT

NTSE Sample Questions : हिन्दी भाषा मे प्रश्न

(Download) CBSE: Class XII Capital Market Operations Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 31 Jul 2018 10:06 PM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Capital Market Operations

Subject : Capital Market Operations

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(i) Answer 1 mark questions in about 20 words.
(ii) Answer 2 marks questions in about 20 –30 words.
(iii) Answer 3 marks questions in about 30–40 words.
(iv) Answer 5 marks questions in about 100 words. 

Questions :

SECTION A

Attempt any 9 questions from this section. All questions are of 1 mark each.

1. Name the two mediums through which the secondary market operates.

2. How is the market capitalization of companies listed on an Exchange computed ?

3. List the investment avenues provided by the financial market to reallocate savings.

4. Give the expanded form of NEAT.

5. How is a member’s net worth calculated ? 

6. List the different categories of Dominant Promoter Groups.

7. Are there any entry/exit barriers to the membership of NSE ?

8. State the role of a Branch Manager in the Corporate Hierarchy.

9. Define ‘Post Close Market’.

10.How does Book Entry System of Depository operate ?

11.Define ‘Insider’ under SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992.

12.Define ‘Financial Ratio’.

SECTION B

Attempt any 10 questions from this section. All questions are of 2 marks each.

13. How does Demutualization help to govern the stock exchanges efficiently ?

14. How does Globalisation provide an international platform to the Indian securities ?

15. List the documents that are submitted by a Trading Member to the Membership Department of the Exchange to appoint a Sub-Broker.

16. What information is displayed on the security descriptor ? Explain briefly.

17. What is meant by ‘Index Trading’ ?

18. How does stop-loss apply during trading in NEAT system ?

19. NSE is the first Stock Exchange in India to launch internet trading in February 2000. How does it work ?

20. How is VaR Margin collected ? Describe briefly.  

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Tuesday, July 31, 2018

CBSE PORTAL : NTSE Sample Questions : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

CBSE PORTAL : NTSE Sample Questions : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

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NTSE Sample Questions : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Posted: 31 Jul 2018 12:48 AM PDT

NTSE Sample Questions : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

 
LANGUAGE TEST
Language Test is designed to judge the power of reading comprehension, logical sequencing; interpretative, evaluative, predictive and creative components of language. The candidates may please carefully note that language test is to be attempted either in English or in Hindi (as per option of the candidate) in the national level NTSE.
 
Sample Questions in English Language
I. Read the following passage about the people of Coorg and answer the questions that follow.
 
The fiercely independent people of Coorg are possibly of Greek or Arab descent. As one story goes, a part of Alexander’s army moved south along the coast and settled here when return became impractical. These people married amongst the locals and their culture is apparent in the martial traditions, marriage and religious rites, which are distinct from the Hindu mainstream. The theory of Arab origin draws support from the long, black coat with an embroidered waist-belt worn by the Kodavus known as kuppia, it resembles the kuffia worn by the Arabs and the Kurds.
1.The word ‘possibly’ means…
     1.The writer has good reasons to believe that the Coorgs are of Greek or Arab descent.
     2.The writer is not sure.
     3.The writer is stating a fact.
     4.The writer says that it is unlikely.
 
2. Return became ‘impractical ‘ means
    1. The Greeks could not go back.
    2. The Greeks wanted to stay back.
    3. They found it difficult to go back.
   4. They found it frivolous to go back.
 
3. ‘distinct from the Hindu mainstream’ means
   1. Clear
   2. Differentiated
   3. Similar
   4. Obscure
 
4. The Arab origin of the Coorg implies
   1. How the Arab originated
   2. How the idea that the Coorgs are of Arab origin originated
   3. How a theory originated among Arabs
   4. Living in Coorg is same as living in Iraq
 
5. Find the adjective that describe the Coorg
   1. Independent
   2. Impractical
   3. Protective of their identity
   4. Distinct
 
II. The following five sentences come from a paragraph. First and last sentences are given. Choose from the given three sentences (P,Q,R) the order in which they appear to complete the paragraph.
 
S1 Many new government buildings in Delhi will have cool roofs
S2 ___________________________________________________
S3____________________________________________________
S4 ____________________________________________________
S5 A white wash of a dark roof is one cheap and simple option.
 
 P This will help reduce energy use by air conditioners.
 Q They will reflect sunlight and heat unlike conventional dark ones.
 R Cool roofs do not require high level ‘rocket technology’.
 
Choose from the option given below.
1. PQR
2. RQP
3. QPR
4. PRQ
 
III.Rearrange the words into meaningful sentences.
1. /we / since / my brother / in this place / have been living /was born. /
2. /are /many ways / theorem /where /a mathematical / can be/ proved./
3. /on/stay/ their seats / passengers/ has opened / conductor / door / requested/ are/ the /until/ the /
4. / before / diseases / known / 18th century / some / not / were / of / these / the/ common/
5. /cancer/ her / had / family/ knew/even/Anand/ but / did not / tell / he /his/
 
IV. Find the word which best completes the sentence.
1. Apart from the _____________ cough and cold, I have been remarkably healthy all my life.
1. odd
2. opportune
3. irregular
4. timely
 
2. Our hosts had prepared a ___________meal with five courses to celebrate our arrival.
1. Generous
2. profuse
3. lavish
4. extraordinary
 
V. There are different names for the word ‘storm’ depending on their nature. Choose from the box below which suits the definition of the word.
1. A violent tropical storm in which strong winds move in a circle.
2. An extremely strong wind.
3. A violent tropical storm with very strong winds.
4. A violent storm whose centre is a cloud in the shape of a funnel.
5. A violent storm with very strong winds, especially in the western Atlantic ocean.
6. A very strong wind that moves very fast in a spinning movement and causes a lot of damage.
a. Gale
b. Whirlwind
c. Cyclone
d. Hurricane
e. Tornado
f. Typhoon

 

 

 

 

 

 

VI.Choose the correct phrase from the given options to complete the sentences.

1. It requires such depth of oppression ________________________
    1. not to create a fear.
    2. to create such heights of character.
    3. for a free country.
    4. to lead to unpleasantness.
 
2. Courage was not the absence of fear ______________________
   1. but the triumph over it.
   2. but the fight over it.
   3. but the feel of it.
   4. but an act of self preservation. 
 
Sample Questions in Social Sciences
1. Trace the growth of different strands of National Movement in India in time sequence.
a. Establishment of Depressed Classes Association
b. Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress
c. “Purna Swaraj”
d. Non-cooperation and Khilafat Movement
1. a, c, d, b
2. d, b, c, a
3. c, a d, b
4. d, c, b, a
 
2 Match the natural vegetation in Column I with the State in Column II 
Column I Column II
A.Tropical Evergreen Forest 1.Rajasthan
B.Tropical Deciduous Forest 2.Kerala
C.Montane Forest 3.Uttarakhand
D.Tropical Thorn Forest 4.Jharkhand

1. A2, B1, C3, D4

2. A2, B3, C4, D1

3. A2, B4, C3, D1

4. A4, B2, C3, D1
 
3 Ford Motors, an MNC wants to invest in India for manufacturing automobiles because
1. they can hire cheap labour.
2. tax laws are very stringent.
3. industrial licensing policy is applicable.
4. foreign companies are regulated.
1. I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
2. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
3. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
4. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
 
4 Which of the following situations is the example of violation of the Principle of ‘free and fair election’?
1. A candidate openly supports reservation on the caste basis and gets overwhelming support of the voters of a particular caste.
2. A party promises in its election manifesto that if it wins, it will make a policy to give every household a free TV set.
3. A Leader declares that if his party forms the government it would waive the loans of small farmers.
4. A candidate distributes motorcycles to all those who manage more than one hundred votes in his favour.
 
Sample Questions in Sciences and Mathematics
 
1 An element ‘A’ reacts with oxygen to form a protective layer of compound ‘B’. The component ‘B’ is also obtained by the reaction of ‘A’ with rust. The compound ‘B’ is known to react both with acids and bases. Identify the element ‘A’.
1. Silver
2. Aluminium
3. Copper
4. Magnesium
 
2In a fight and flight situation, adrenaline hormone is secreted to enable to deal with, the responses include:-
A. Increase in blood supply to skeletal muscle and contraction of diaphragm.
B. Increase in blood supply to digestive system and contraction of rib muscle.
C. Supply of more oxygen to muscle and reduced blood supply to skin.
D. Increase in heart beats, breathing rate and increase blood supply to digestive system.
1. A & D
2. B & D
3. B & C
4. A & C
 
3A horse pulls a carriage with a force P. Which two among the following statements are correct?
a) The carriage also pulls the horse back with a force P.
b) Since the carriage pulls the horse back with a equal force P, the system does not move at all.
c) The system moves because the horse can hit the ground with its hoofs; the horizontal component of whose reaction is greater than the total frictional and other forces of resistance offered by the ground.
d) The acceleration of the horse and the carriage are unequal.
1. a and b
2. a and c
3. a and d
4. c and d
 
4 .ABCD is a quadrilateral, and AB2 + BC2 + CD2 + DA2 = AC2 + BD2. Then
1. All angles of ABCD are equal.
2. All sides of ABCD are equal.
3. ABCD must be a parallelogram.
4. ABCD is a trapezium.
 
5. There are two cups filled with equal amount of tea and coffee. A spoonful of coffee is first transferred from coffee-cup to the tea-cup and then a spoonful from the tea-cup is transferred to the coffee-cup, then
1. Amount of tea in the coffee-cup is more than the amount of coffee in the tea-cup.
2. Amount of coffee in the tea-cup is more than the amount of tea in the coffee-cup.
3. Amount of coffee in the tea-cup is the same as the amount of tea in the coffee-cup.
4. These amounts cannot be compared unless the volume of spoon and that of the cups are known

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National Talent Search Examination (NTSE) Papers

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(Download) CBSE: Class XII Database Management Application Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 30 Jul 2018 10:34 PM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Database Management Application

Subject : Database Management Application

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

  • Please check that this question paper contains 4 printed pages.
  • Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
  • Please check that this question paper contains 4 questions.
  • Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.
  • 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.

Questions :

SECTION A

1. Multiple Choice Questions (Choose the most appropriate option) : 1x6=6
(a) Consider the statement :
Employee (Employee_id, Emp_name, designation)
Here the Employee_id, Emp_name and designation are _______ and Employee is a ___________ . 1
(i) Tuples, Relation
(ii) Attributes, Relation
(iii) Tuples, Attribute
(iv) Relations, Attribute

(b) A group of statements which get executed based on a condition is called 1
(i) Selection
(ii) Sequential
(iii) Iteration
(iv) None of these

(c) Which SQL command is used to modify the structure of any table ? 1
(i) MODIFY TABLE
(ii) ALTER TABLE
(iii) UPDATE TABLE
(iv) CHANGE TABLE

(d) Which of the following is true regarding Referential Integrity ? 1
(i) Each primary key value must match a primary key value in a related table.
(ii) Each primary key value must match a foreign key value in a related table.
(iii) Each foreign key value must match a primary key value in a related table.
(iv) Each foreign key value must match a foreign key value in a related table.

(e) Which segment do eBay and Amazon belong to ? 1
(i) B2B (Business to Business)
(ii) C2C (Consumer to Consumer)
(iii) C2B (Consumer to Business)
(iv) B2C (Business to Consumer)

(f) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in relation to B2C (Business to Consumer) commerce ? 1
I. Business gets a wide reach to customers.
II. Availability 24 hours a day seven days a week.
III. Privacy of transaction is always maintained.
(i) I and II
(ii) II and III
(iii) I and III
(iv) I only

SECTION B

2. Short Answer Questions : 2x8=16
(a) State any two advantages of using DBMS over traditional file system. 2

(b) Find the output of the following code. How many times will the loop be executed ? 2
for (int count = 1; count <= 10; count = count + 2)
{
System.out.println (count);
}

(c) Define Variable. Write the code to declare a variable to store your age. 2

(d) What is NULL value ? Write the query to retrieve all the records from table ‘Result’ where marks are NULL. 2

(e) What do you mean by Work Integrated Learning ? Give example. 2

(f) Why is Java known as a Platform independent language ? 2

(g) Write any two advantages of Online learning. 2

(h) What do you mean by Entity and its attribute ? 2

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(Download) CBSE: Class XII Printed Textile Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 30 Jul 2018 10:17 PM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Printed Textile

Subject : Printed Textile

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(i) Attempt all sections.
(ii) Illustrate your answers, wherever possible.

Questions :

SECTION A

1. Fill in the blanks :
(i) _________ fiber was used by ancient Egyptian cultures around 5000 BC for producing fabric.
(ii) Indian hand printed cottons known as _________ were exported to Europe in the late 16th century.
(iii) Industrial _________ printing was developed in 1785 in England.
(iv) Floral prints have been used a lot by designers like _________ in their collections. 

(v) Patchwork prints are also known as _________ cloth.
(vi) _________ prints are appropriate for kidswear.
(vii) Printing is done on both sides of the fabric in _________ printing method.
(viii) _________ method of printing is not suitable for large scale production.

SECTION B

Write very short answers :

2. When and where was the Pop Art Movement introduced ? What were its chief characteristics ?

3. Give two differences between Art Deco and Art Nouveau movements of design.

4. What are the motifs used and products made with Oriental prints ?

5. Write a brief note on Motif prints or Dot prints.

6. List two advantages of Digital printing. 

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