Saturday, August 4, 2018

CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE: Class XII Elementary Structural Mechanics Question Paper - 2018

CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE: Class XII Elementary Structural Mechanics Question Paper - 2018

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(Download) CBSE: Class XII Elementary Structural Mechanics Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 04 Aug 2018 04:45 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Elementary Structural Mechanics

Subject : Elementary Structural Mechanics

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

Attempt any 14 questions. Each question carries 1 mark.

Questions :

SECTION A

1.For a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material, the number of elastic constants required to raise stress and strain is
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six

2.When a metal regains its original shape when stress acting upon it is removed, the metal is said to have
(a) Ductility
(b) Plasticity
(c) Malleability
(d) Elasticity

3.The length between the supports of a Charpy impact test specimen is
(a) 60 mm
(b) 50 mm
(c) 40 mm
(d) 30 mm

4.Modulus of elasticity can be found out by the following relationship :
(a) Stress + Strain
(b) Stress – Strain
(c) Stress × Strain
(d) Stress / Strain

5.The term ‘Young’s modulus’ is used
(a) only for young persons
(b) only for old persons
(c) for young and old persons
(d) None of these

6.If a force acts on a material, it sets up some resistance to the deformation. This resistance is known as
(a) Stress
(b) Strain
(c) Elasticity
(d) Modulus of elasticity   

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(Download) CBSE: Class XII Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 04 Aug 2018 04:32 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices

Subject : Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

Attempt any thirteen questions. Each question carries one mark. Select the correct answer. 

Questions :

SECTION A

1.Which medium is/are used in a communication system ?
(1) Fibre optic
(2) Atmosphere
(3) Coaxial cable
(4) All of the above 

2.If the frequency range of an electronic signal is high, what will be its bandwidth ?
(1) High
(2) Low
(3) Medium
(4) No relation 

3.Through which medium does ‘space wave’ propagation take place ?
(1) Ionosphere
(2) Troposphere
(3) Over the surface of the Earth
(4) Waveguide 

4.In a Cellular Radio System, if the cell size is increased, the transmitter power will be
(1) Decreased
(2) Increased
(3) No change
(4) Exponentially decreased 

5.In a satellite, how much is the intensity of downlink signals in comparison to uplink received signals ?
(1) No relation
(2) Very high
(3) Very low
(4) Equal 

6.The ‘Elevation’ of a satellite is that angle which the satellite makes
(1) With the horizon
(2) Clockwise from North
(3) Clockwise from South
(4) With the equator 

7.In a satellite, for transmission and reception of main signals, how many antennas are there ?
(1) One (common for both)
(2) Two (separate for each)
(3) One or two (depends on satellite)
(4) Three 

8.With reference to mobile phones, what is the full form of UIM ?
(1) User Interface Multiplexing
(2) User Interface Module
(3) Unique Identity Module
(4) User Identity Module

9.What is the frequency range on which mobile phones operate ?
(1) 300 MHz to 3000 MHz
(2) 825 MHz to 890 MHz
(3) 3 MHz to 30 MHz
(4) 100 MHz to 1000 MHz

10.What is the shape of ‘cells’ in a Base Master System ?
(1) Circular
(2) Hexagonal
(3) Square
(4) Triangular

11.The components are soldered and desoldered on a PCB, by an SMD Rework Station through
(1) Hot Air
(2) Direct Heating
(3) Dielectric Heating
(4) None of the above

12.For voice signals, what type of modulation is used in a mobile phone ?
(1) Amplitude Modulation
(2) Frequency Modulation
(3) Phase Modulation
(4) None of the above 

13.The radiating power of a mobile phone
(1) remains constant
(2) changes like a sine wave
(3) changes with time
(4) is controlled by a microprocessor 

14.Which is the first device (equipment) best suited to repair a wet mobile phone ?
(1) Multimeter
(2) CRO
(3) Hot air gun
(4) Soldering station

15.To become a successful mobile repair technician, the ‘Technical Support Guidance’ can be obtained from
(1) Internet
(2) Training Institutes
(3) Books
(4) All of the above   

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Courtesy: CBSE

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Language Comprehensive Test (LCT)

Posted: 04 Aug 2018 03:40 AM PDT

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Language Comprehensive Test (LCT)

 Q.1–5

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it.

The loudest public food fight right now is about GMOs, or genetically modified organisms. Scientists add genes to corn, soya beans and other plants, usually to protect the crops from insects of herbicides. Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops casier to grow and cheaper. But many consumers and those who keep an eye on food–safety worry that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to out health and the enviroment. These opponents say the GMOs have been linked to depression, allergies and even cancer. Uniess we have been eating food labelled 100 percent organic – which means that it must be GMO–free–we probably have GMOs in our body system already!

1.  Adding genes to crops will

(1) Help in better crop–research.  

(2) Make them resistant to insect attacks.

(3) Make the foods ‘organic’.

(4) Give them a stable price in the markets.

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   It is written in second line of passage that scientists add genes to protect the crops from insects.

2. The “.....loudest public food fight .....” suggests that

(1) People do not like the Crop Scicentists.

(2) Crop Scientists are almost fighting in the streets.

(3) There is a great competition in growing GMOs.

(4) There are strong protests against GMOs

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   Last lines of passage making it clear that people are still against of GMO food.

3.   Those who support GMOs say that

(1) Growing the crops poses may challenges now.

(2) They do not protect the fields from insect–attacks.

(3) They bring down the prices of the crops.

(4) They help in carrying out more experiments with better results.

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   This answer is clear from the line, ‘Those who support this say that the genetic help makes crops easier to grow and cheaper’.

4.   Those who are opposed to GMOs say that

(1) The costs of the crops will not change much in the markets.

(2) The pattern of growing and harvesting of crops will change.

(3) Such crop–research has been stopped.

(4) These crops can cause serious harm to our health.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   This answer is from the line ‘opponents say that GMOs pose an unnatural threat to our health’.

5.   ‘Organic foods’ according to the passage are those are

(1) already there is our bodies as GMOs      

(2) grown in well-organised farms

(3) grown free from GMOs      

(4) helpful to our body’s various organs

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   In last line it is given that Organic food is grown free from GMOs.

6-10  Read the following passage and answer  the questions given after it.

‘We are living in the golden are of answer’. Of cuurs information is not knowledge or wisdom, and data can mislead. Profusion of online information can be distracting or even useless. Privacy can also be a problem in a digital world where everything you’ve clicked can be used to sell things to you, evaluate you or embrrass you. Your iphone or computer can provide information to others that you might prefer to keep to yourself. But revolutions always cause some damages. Things do get lost in the ocean of information. We no longer bother to remember stuff we can easily look up. We don’t search  for addresses  as we use the GPS.  We spend  rnore  time connecting  with friends on Facebook than connecting with real friends. Still, pop-up ads, internet fradus and other inconveniences are a small price to pay for instant access to infinite information.  Today we have better tools for searching,  analysing or evaluting through data than before. Aand what’s most exciting about our age of answers is, its potential to change the quality of our lives.

6.   The passage primarily discusses

(1) the advantage of technology  

(2) criticism of technology

(3) the age of technology        

(4) the evalution of the pros and cons of technology

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   The whole para is describing the good and bad effect of technology.

7.   ‘The golden age of answers’ implies that there are

(1) diverse technologies available in the present time      

(2) opportunities to connet with friends on Facebook

(3) better tools for searching information   

(4) pop-up ads to provide information

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Only ans (3) is giving an appropriate information about ‘golden age’.

8.   We pay a price for this revolution as we

(1) only receive useless information      

(2) forget our identities

(3) get agitated

(4) surrender our privacy

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   As information can be received from anywhere so it is clear that we have surrendered our privacy.

9.   This ‘revolution’ has brought

(1) radical changes to our lives.     

(2) success in our lives.

(3) rotation in our lives.   

(4) merely problems in our lives.

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   This is clear by the things which are explained that revolution has also caused some damages.

10.     The author’s attitude to technology according to this passage is

(1) not clear.    

(2) positive.     

(3) negative.    

(4) insignificant.

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   Last line of author suggest that he has positive attitude towards technology.

Q. 11-15 Read the following passage and answer the questions given after  it.

For Abid Surti, Sunday is no day of rest. He is busy going to door volunteering with an assistant and a plumber. They are in an apartment building in Mumbai’s densely populated suburb filled with high rise buildings. He rings doorbells and asks residents the same question, ‘Any leaky taps? We are providing a free service.’

Surti is a multifaceted 79 year old man. A national award winning author, he has written some 80 books – novels, plays and collection of short stories and poems. He is also an artist and a cartoonist. In 2007, Surti started Drop Dead Foundation, his won water conservation NGO that caters the buildings in Mira Road, fixing leaky plumbing for free. With water shortages and the prospects of taps running dry in Mumbai, Surti’s work is vital. ‘Massive’ is how he describes water wastage in Mumbai. ‘In poor families, they can’t afford to pay a  plumber but in most middle- class families, the problem is one of sheer indifference. ‘Indeed it was the apathy of a friend that first spurred Surti into action. While visiting a friend’s house, Surti saw a leaking tap and asked why it wasn’t fixed. His friend casually dismissed the query, saying it was hard to get a plumber ‘for something so trivial.’

11.     Surti’s primary mission is to

(1) provide free plumbers.   

(2) check wastage of water

(3) supply free water.   

(4) close running taps.

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   Whole passage is suggesting this thing that it is the main motive of Abid Surti to check the wastage of water.

12.     People may be more willing to accept Surit’s services as he

(1) provides services assisted by a plumber.       

(2) runs a water conservation NGO.

(3) is a local person from Mumbai.   

(4) is on a mission.

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   Surti’s services are accepted because he provides services assisted by a plumber.

13.     Most middle-class families’ attitude to water conservation is due to their

(1) lack of knowledge.   

(2) lack of money.  

(3) lack of expertise.       

(4) lack of concern.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   Poor families don’t have money but middle class families attitude towards water problem is due to lack of concern.

14.     The work being done by Surit is significant because he

(1) runs an NGO in Mumbai.

(2) has several skills.

(3) is providing plumbing services.        

(4) is solving social problems.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   This work is significant because generally tape leakage in avoided due to not getting plumber for something so trivial. And Surti is doing social service by solving water problem.

15.     ‘spurred into action’ means

(1) emboldened to act.  

(2) volunteered to act.   

(3) keen to act.       

(4) encouraged to act.

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Spurred into action means’ to encourage to act something.

Q. (16 to 17): The following five sentences come from a paragraph. The first and the last sentences are given.

Choose the right order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to complete the paragraph.

16.     S 1.  Normally ladybugs are sophisticated and voracious predators.

S 2.  ________________________________________________ S 3.  ________________________________________________ S 4.  ________________________________________________

S 5.  Then it creeps up and strikes, ripping the victim apart with its barbed mandibles.

P –   Once it has homed in on these signals, it switches its sensory scan to search for molecules released by the victim. Q –  A single individual may devour several thousands of victims in a lifetime.

R –   to find a victim, if first waves its antennae to detect chemicals that plants release when they are under attack by herbivorous insects.

Choose from the options given below :

(1) RPQ    

(2) PRQ    

(3) QRP  

(4) PQR

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   S1 is giving information about ladubugs and ‘Q’ is giving information what a ladybug can do, so answer will be ‘QRP’.

17.     S 1.  Years ago, the kids were all keen on ‘soda water powder’, soft drink mix that made carbonated beverages.

S 2.  ____________________________________________ S 3.  ____________________________________________ S 4.  ____________________________________________

S 5.  They began calling them Popsicles instead, and the treat was patented as such.

P –   Epperson cleverly sat on his invention, keeping it secret for 18 years, until he was in the position to make something of it.

Q –  One night in 1905, Frank Epperson accidentally left his drink out on the porch, and as it froze overnight, it was absolutely delicious by the morning.

R –   In 1923, he decided to patent his Epsicles (“Epp’s Icicles”), but his children refused to use that anme since none of them called their father Epp.

Choose from the options given below :

(1) PRQ   

(2) RPQ    

(3) RQP    

(4) QPR

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Q’ is linking with S1 because it is providing information how soda water was invented.

Q. (18-19) : The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate sentence from the given option to complete it.

18.     A.      I used to think that boiling an egg would be a simple job until I came to live in the Himalayas.

B.       _______________________________________________________________________

C.       I don’t know if it’s the altitude or the density of the water, but it just won’t come to a boil in time for break fast.

1.

2.

(1) I found that just getting the water to boil was an achievement. (2) Boiling an egg in the Himalayas was fascinating.

(3) I could never find good eggs there.

(4) “Were the eggs also too hard?” I wondered.

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘A’ is linked with ‘1’ because it says that author came to know about difficulty of boiling egg when he came to live in the Himalayas.

 

19.

A.

Imagine a five-year old composing music and playing on a child-size violin.

 

B.

___________________________________________________________

 

C.

He was a young genius who grew up to be one of t he most creative composers of all time.

(1) This was something Mozart did.     (2) It is strange to find such a phenomenon.

(3) The child must have been some genius.      (4) This is simply impossible for us to think of

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   Answer is decided by ‘C’ as it has ‘He’ and he will be used for some person that is given in Answer ‘1’

 

Q. (20 – 29) : Choose the word which best fills the blank from the four options given,

20.     The journey in the run down bus over the pot-holed road felt almost like a ............................ ride. (1) train    (2) boat     (3) roller-coaster      (4) bicycle

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Run down bus is giving hint. Because ‘roller coaster’ also gives the same feeling when it comes down.

 

21.     The good old Ambassador cars are now considered ................................

(1) obsolete      (2) absolute      (3) obscure       (4) oblivious

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Obsolete’ means no longer produced or out of date.

 

22.     The report has been prepared well and hopefully it will be ........................ at the next board meeting. (1) shelved        (2) chaired       (3) tabled (4) grounded

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Tabled at means to lay (the topic) on the table for consideration.

 

23.     The Talent Search Examination is challenging but not frightening. Why don’t you take a ...................... at it ? (1) shot   (2) trial      (3) hit         (4) swipe

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Take a shot’ means to try to do something.

 

24.     Grandfather  has always been a figure of ......................... in our large family.

(1) authorised (2) authoritative     (3) authoritarian      (4) authority

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Authority’ word is noun that is most suitable after ‘figure of’

 

25.     She found Rashmi in the kitchen, looking old and ............................

(1) healthy       (2) weary   (3) busy    (4) in a hurry

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘Old and weary’ both will come together as she was working in kitchen and she was looking rather ‘tired (weary)’.

 

26.     Tax offenders were refused ...................... to leave the country.

(1) admission (2) submission         (3) information        (4) permission

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   admission, submission, information can not be answer. As ‘permission’ is needed to leave the country.

 

27.     A good driver will be very careful before carrying out a complex ...................

(1) movement (2) manoeuvre         (3) motion        (4) moment

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘manoeuvre’ means a movement or series of moves requiring skill and care.

 

28.     With the new Management taking over, there’s now a big ........................ hanging over the Company’s future. (1) thought (2) gossip   (3) discussion   (4) question mark

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   New management taking over, so it is a ‘big question mark’ now on company’s  future.

 

29.     The Coffee Room was ........................... into smoking and non-smoking areas.

(1) amalgamated   (2) considered (3) segregated (4) shared

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   Coffee room was divided in two areas and ‘segregated’ means also ‘to divide’.

 

Q.(30-35) : Select the meaning of the given phrases/idioms.

30.     For want of

(1) because of lack of      

(2) giving something wanted by another

(3) desiring something    

(4) because of fulfilling needs

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘for want of’ means ‘because of lack of something/resources’.

 

31.     Clown around

(1) make others feel silly and stupid       

(2) be an object of ridicule

(3) join a Circus company     

(4) behave  in a silly way

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   ‘Clown around’ means ‘behave in a funny or silly way’.

 

32.     Talk back

(1) answer rudely     

(2) talk behind a person’s back

(3) talk in a loud voice   

(4) reply to the questions asked

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Talk back’ means ‘Reply rudely or defiantly’.

 

33.     Run into

(1) meet someone by chance       

(2) start quarrelling

(3) make unexpected purchases  

(4) run from one place to another

Ans.  (1)

Sol.   ‘Run into’ Idiom means ‘Collide with’ or ‘To meet or find someone or something by chance’.

 

34.     blow one’s own trumpet

(1) to create music        

(2) to praise someone  

(3) to praise oneself        

(4) to feel happy

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘Blow one’s own trumpet’ means ‘to boast or praise oneself greatly’.

 

35.     To see eye to eye

(1) stare at someone        (2) examine someone’s eyes

(3) have the same opinion     (4) be cross-eyed

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘To see eye to eye’ means ‘To be able to come to an agreement’ or ‘have the same opinion’.

 

Q.36–43

In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given option.

At Sri Venkateswara  Temple in Tirumala, better known as Tirupati, the laddu is next in popularity only to the Lord. The taste and aroma of (36) ............  besan (gram flour) confections – saturated (37) ............  ghee, raisin, nuts, cardamon,  and (38) ............  camphor  – draws millions of devotees  (39) ............  this temple town in Andhra Pradesh, (40) ............  for a bite of this holy (41) ............  . In 2009, it received international (42) ............  when its was given the unique global (43) ............  i.e. legal protection against imitation.

 

36.

(1) this

(2) these

(3) those

(4) their

Ans.

Sol.

(2)

here ‘laddus’ are

 

mentioned  so ‘these’ is used.

 

 

 

37.

(1) from

(2) of

(3) in

(4) with

Ans.

(4)

 

 

 

Sol.   ‘saturated’ word takes ‘with’ preposition with it.

 

38.

(1) edible

(2) fine

(3) light

(4) pious

Ans.

(1)

 

 

 

Sol.   the other things mentioned before this are edible and ‘camphor’ which is used in these laddus is also ‘edible’.

 

39.

(1) with

(2) to

(3) for

(4) from

Ans.

(2)

 

 

 

Sol.   devotees come ‘to’ this temple.

 

40.

(1) seen

(2) look

(3) eager

(4) find

Ans.

(3)

 

 

 

Sol.   All people remain ‘eager’ for a bite.

 

41.

(1) dish

(2) eat

(3) taste

(4) joy

Ans.

(1)

 

 

 

Sol.   ‘This holy’ is referring to ‘dish of laddus’.

 

42.

(1) taste

(2) fame

(3) claim

(4) love

Ans.

(2)

 

 

 

Sol.   These laddus have got international ‘fame’.

 

43.     (1) index                                    

(2) quality                              

(3) patent       

(4) reward

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   it was given a ‘patent’.

 

Q.44–47

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given alternatives.

44.     Locacted close to Charminar,  the kilometer–long stretch of Laad Bazaar is ............  with shops selling bright in every hue and colour.

(1) came                                  

(2) discovered

(3) covered      

(4) filled

Ans.  (4)

Sol.   Laad bazaar in ‘filled with’ shops.

 

45.     I suggest you should ............ yourself with the rules before you join the meeting.

(1) familiar      

(2) familiarize

(3) familiarly     

(4) familiarity

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   We need a verb after ‘you should’ so ‘familiarize’ is the only answer.

 

46.     The child held the bag as tightly as if it were her most ............  possession.

(1) prize    

(2) prizy   

(3) prized

(4) prizely

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘prized’ past participle verb is needed here.

 

47.     The weakness in their defense has already cost them ............  this season.

(1) dear    

(2) dearly

(3) deary  

(4) dearness

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘dearly’ adverb is describing verb ‘cost’.

 

Q.48–50

Select the word which means the opposite of the given word.

48.     Undertake

(1) recognise    

(2) being   

(3) refuse

(4) rejoice

Ans.  (3)

Sol.   ‘undertake’ means ‘promise to do something’ and opposite of this will be ‘refuse’.

 

49.     Hefty

(1) half–hearted      

(2) light     

(3) heavy

(4) halved

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘Hefty’ means ‘large and heavy’ and oposite of this will be ‘light’.

 

50.     Miniature

(1) manicure   

(2) massive      

(3) missive                              

(4) masculine

Ans.  (2)

Sol.   ‘Miniature’ means ‘very sma

Courtesy: NTSE

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Mental Ability Test (MAT)

Posted: 03 Aug 2018 05:08 AM PDT

NTSE Sample Questions : 2015 Mental Ability Test (MAT)

 
4. Which of the following is a group of females?
(1) GCE (2) GEH (3) GCH (4) GHB
Sol. Ans. 3, G C H
 
5. In which department do three people work ?
(1) Operations
(2) Accounts
(3) Operations or Accounts
(4) Data inadequate
Sol. Ans. 2, accounts
 
6. What will be the position of A from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their income ?
(1) Second (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Fifth
Sol. Ans. 2, Third
 
7. In which of the following departments does B work ?
(1) Operations (2) Accounts (3) Administration (4) Data inadequate
Sol. Ans. 4, Data inadequate
 
8. Which of the following statements is definitely true ?
(1) B earns less than F and H (2) F earns more than B and E
(3) B earns more than E and C (4) B earns less than A and H
Sol. Ans. 4, B earns less than A and H.
 
Directions (Q.9 to Q.11) : Given an input, a machine generates pass codes for the six batches each day as follows:
Input: these icons were taken out from the sea. Pass Codes
Batch I : from sea the out taken were icons these
Batch II : from icons these were taken out the sea
Batch III : from icons out sea the taken were these
Batch IV : from icons out sea these were taken the
The pattern followed is as under : In the first step, the word which comes first in the dictionary is placed at the first place and the remaining words are written in a reverse order. In the second step, the word which comes second in the dictionary is placed at the second place and all words except the first and the second are written in a reverse order. The process continues in the same manner to give the pass codes for the subsequent batches.
 
9. What will be the pass code for the Batch V on a day, if the input is “four of the following five form a group” ?
(1) a five following form four group the of (2) a five following form group the of four
(3) a five following form four the of group (4) a five following form four group of the

(Download) CBSE: Class XII Taxtile Chemical Processing Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 03 Aug 2018 04:14 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Taxtile Chemical Processing

Subject : Taxtile Chemical Processing

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(i) All sections are compulsory.
(ii) Use diagrams wherever possible.

Questions :

SECTION A

1.Fill in the blanks with an appropriate word from the word list :
(a) Impurity in Wool __________
(b) Impurity in Silk __________
(c) For Acrylic Dyeing __________
(d) For dyeing of Protein Fibres __________
(e) Method of Resist Printing __________
(f) Important part of Print Paste __________

Word List :

(i) Thickening Agent
(ii) Acid Dyes
(iii) Suint
(iv) Screen
(v) Basic Dyes
(vi) Sericin
 

SECTION B

Write very short answers.

2. Write a short note on Plate Singeing.
3. Give a brief account of Winch dyeing machine.
4. Write a note on Duplex Printing.
5. Define Parchmentisation Finish.
OR
What do you understand by Antimicrobial Finish ?

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Courtesy: CBSE

(Download) CBSE: Class XII Traditional Indian Textile Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 03 Aug 2018 04:01 AM PDT

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Traditional Indian Textile

Subject : Traditional Indian Textile

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(i) All sections are compulsory.
(ii) Use diagrams wherever possible.

Questions :

SECTION A

1.Fill in the blanks :

(a) The special tie-dyed textile from Rajasthan that is gifted to the mothers of newborn babies is ___________ .
(b) Kasuti embroidery is an auspicious craft practised in ___________ .
(c) Bagru, a small village in Rajasthan, is known for its ___________ block prints.
(d) The basic stitch used in Parsi embroidery is ___________ .
(e) The ___________ process is used to produce multi-coloured resist dot patterns on the fabric. 

2.State whether the following statements are True or False :

(a) Andhra Pradesh is famous for its pen-craft popularly known as kalamkari.
(b) The tie-dyed textiles produced in Rajasthan are known as bandhej.
(c) Abhla Bharat is an embroidery style carried out by the tribal communities of Gujarat.
(d) Coins, mango, brick and rosary beads are the commonly used motifs in chanderi saris.
(e) For making a print motif, the filling block is printed first followed by the outline block.  

SECTION B

Attempt all the questions in this section.

(a) What do blue and ochre yellow colours symbolize in Srikalahasti Kalamkari ?
(b) Differentiate between Lehariya and Mothra.
(c) Name four major centres of Bandhani in Gujarat.
(d) How is a constant flow of dye maintained in the kalam while doing kalamkari ?
(e) Why is Telia Rumal named as such ? 

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Courtesy: CBSE

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