INDIA EXAMINATIONS: 06/05/18

Tuesday, June 5, 2018

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NCERT Chemistry Question Paper (Class - 12)
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(Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : English (Elective)

Posted: 05 Jun 2018 12:24 AM PDT

(Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : English (Elective)

ENGLISH (ELECTIVE) – NCERT

SESSION -2017-18

MM 100
The question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A- Reading 20
Section-B- Writing and Grammar 30
Section C- Literature 30
Section D- Fiction 20
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) You may attempt any section at a time.
(iii) All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order

Section-A
(Reading)

1 A : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Friends, I visualize a scene. A school having about 50 teachers and 750 students. It is a place of beauty and for fostering creativity and learning. How is it possible? It is because the school management and the Principal selected the teachers who love teaching, who treat the students as their children or grandchildren. The children see the teachers as role models not only in teaching but how they conduct their lives. Above all, I see an environment in which there is nothing like a good student, average student or poor student. The whole school and teacher system is involved in generating students who perform to their best. And above all, what should be the traits the teacher should possess based on teachers’ life both inside the class room and outside the school? When good teachers walk among them, the students should feel the heat of knowledge and the purity of their lives radiate from them. This race of teachers should multiply.

Teachers and parents should preserve the happy smiles on the faces of their children even when they complete their school education. The student should feel confident that ‘I can do it’. He or she should have the self-esteem and the capability to become an employment generator. This transformation can only be brought about by a teacher who has the vision to transform. I have always liked to sit in a class. When I visit schools and colleges in India and abroad, I like to see how teachers teach and students interact in the classroom. Recently, I was in Andhra Pradesh, in a one-teacher school classroom. The school had classes only up to the fifth grade. I was with the students and the teacher was teaching. How happy were the children? The teacher was telling the young students, ‘Dear children, you see the full moon, the beautiful scene in the sky brings smiles and cheers. Remember, as you smile the family also smiles. How many of you keep your parents happy?’ The whole class lifted their hands. They said, they would do it. I also lifted my hand along with the students
I would like to share this event that I witnessed when I was a young boy of about ten years. In our house, periodically I used to see three different unique personalities meet. Pakshi Lakshamana Shastrigal, who was the head priest of the famous Rameshwaram temple and a Vedic Scholar, Rev father Bodal, who built the first church in Rameshwaram island and my father who was an imam in the mosque. All three of them used to sit and discuss the island’s problems and find solutions. In addition, they initiated dialogues between communities with compassion.

These connectivity’s quietly spread in the island like the fragrance from the flowers. The memory of the three men meeting always comes to my mind whenever I discuss the importance of dialogue between religions. India has had this advantage of integration of minds for thousands of years. Throughout the world, the need to have a frank dialogue among cultures, religions and civilizations is being felt now more than ever.
There are some events that bring together the whole world.

We have seen how the launching of Sputnik by the Russians or Niel Armstrong’s stepping on the moon electrified the entire youth of the world. When an Indian origin astronaut along with her colleagues was returning to Earth after a major space mission, the entire world prayed for their safe return. Cricket is followed avidly in the commonwealth while soccer has an European inspiration, and they represent intense competition and admiration across borders. Similarly I have seen many instances of how art and music integrate the minds of the youth.

A few years back, when I met Mr. Vladimir Putin, the president of Russia, we agreed on building a youth satellite where the youth from different countries can work together. Such working together will increase understanding, make them explore new avenues and the spirit of cooperation among the youth globally will prevail, the idea of a youth satellite as a joint venture of countries was born. I am glad, the space agencies of India and Russia put in efforts and the first youth satellite was launched on 20thApril, 2011 from Shriharikota in the state of Andhra Pradesh. I had then suggested to the ISRO team to continue the series of youth satellite, so that you may also use this as a platform to developing collaborative project needed for scientific and technological developments and it’s applications. And above all, it will lead to integration of minds.
Dear friends, if you ask me, how my life has enriched for the last eighty-three years, I have to convey to all of you one message. The message is like this. When I reached the age of seventeen, I had one great companion. That companion was nothing but great books. Throughout my life, books enriched me.

Earth is facing many conflicts both natural and man-made. As a youth, all of you have a responsibility to work for universal harmony by ironing out all the causes of conflicts. Are you ready to do so?
One of the important areas of work is moving towards clean green energy and a clean planet earth. That means it is centered around on a mission for providing a good life to 7 billion people. If all of you work for this singular

1B: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follows:
The Poet’s Farewell to Life
The fire of this life’s poison has gone out,
No more does it look forward
To the coming of new leaves.
In the grove of the heart,
Burns the lamp of hope;
The path envelop’d in darkness, lighted

By a single ray of light,
As direction is found
By the pole -star
Among the cluster of stars.
Time to wrap up life’s play
Like the yogi fulfilled,
Or like the common man:
Bhishma watching it all
From his hard bed of arrows.

Mellow’d is the summer’s heat, the rain over,
Past is life’s autumn, covered over with golden hair;
Gone the biting winter, the drunken spring,
Filled with the pleasure mangoes bring.
Spent is the expedition fourfold,
The poet’s assault on life, conquering quarters four
Rich with movement, rhythm and vision,
With sound full of significance,
Endowed with imagery, emotion of art and love:
The ringing arithmetic of music, rhyme, meter,
Has already slipped from these fingers.
Playful acts turned to shame-faced silence,
Fatuous the attacks of rival wrestlers with words,
They’ve gone wide of the mark.
This skin, once taut as a leather-shield,
Hangs in folds from the body.
Come morning once again,
Let it be another round of life.(206 words)
(Nirala)

What does the poet mean by" The fire of this life poison"?
What is directing the poet now?
Explain ' spent in the expedition fourfold'.
What makes the sound significant?
With what has the skin been compared to?
Give the gist of the poem in a sentence.
Give the meaning of 'fatuous'.

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सीबीएसई बोर्ड कक्षा-12

NCERT Chemistry Question Paper (Class - 12)

Posted: 05 Jun 2018 12:06 AM PDT

NCERT Chemistry Question Paper (Class - 12)

:: Chapter 1 - The Solid State ::

INTEXT QUESTIONS

Question 1.1: Why are solids rigid?

Question 1.2: Why do solids have a definite volume?

Question 1.3: Classify the following as amorphous or crystalline solids: Polyurethane, naphthalene, benzoic acid, teflon, potassium nitrate, cellophane, olyvinylchloride, fibre glass, copper.

Question 1.4: Why is glass considered a super cooled liquid?

Question 1.5: Refractive index of a solid is observed to have the same value along all directions. Comment on the nature of this solid. Would it show cleavage property?

Question 1.6: Classify the following solids in different categories based on the nature of intermolecular forces operating in them:
Potassium sulphate, tin, benzene, urea, ammonia, water, zinc sulphide, graphite, rubidium, argon, silicon carbide.

Question 1.7: Solid A is a very hard electrical insulator in solid as well as in molten state and melts at extremely high temperature. What type of solid is it?

Question 1.8: Ionic solids conduct electricity in molten state but not in solid state. Explain.

Question 1.9: What type of solids are electrical conductors, malleable and ductile?

Question 1.10: Give the significance of a 'lattice point'.

Question 1.11: Name the parameters that characterize a unit cell.

Question 1.12: Distinguish between (i) Hexagonal and monoclinic unit cells (ii) Face−centred and end−centred unit cells.

Question 1.13: Explain how much portion of an atom located at (i) corner and (ii) body−centre of a cubic unit cell is part of its neighboring unit cell.

Question 1.14: What is the two dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close packed layer?

Question 1.15: A compound forms hexagonal close−packed structure. What is the total number of voids in 0.5 mol of it? How many of these are tetrahedral voids?

Question 1.16: A compound is formed by two elements M and N. The element N forms ccp and atoms of M occupy 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?

Question 1.17: Which of the following lattices has the highest packing efficiency (i) simple cubic (ii) body−centred cubic and (iii) hexagonal close−packed lattice?

Question 1.18: An element with molar mass 2.7 × 10−2 kg mol−1 forms a cubic unit cell with edge length 405 pm. If its density is 2.7 × 103 kg m−3, what is the nature of the cubic unit cell?

Question 1.19: What type of defect can arise when a solid is heated? Which physical property is effected by it and in what way?

Question 1.20: What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by: (i) ZnS (ii) AgBr

Question 1.21: Explain how vacancies are introduced in an ionic solid when a cation of higher valence is added as an impurity in it.

Question 1.22: Ionic solids, which have anionic vacancies due to metal excess defect, develop colour.Explain with the help of a suitable example.

Question 1.23: A group 14 element is to be converted into n−type semiconductor by doping it with a suitable impurity. To which group should this impurity belong?

Question 1.24:What type of substances would make better permanent magnets, ferromagnetic or ferrimagnetic. Justify your Solution:.

EXERCISE

Question 1:Define the term 'amorphous'. Give a few examples of amorphous solids.

Question 2. What makes a glass different from a solid such as quartz?

Question 3. Classify each of the following solids as ionic, metallic, molecular, network (covalent) or amorphous.

Question 4. (i) What is meant by the term 'coordination number' ? (ii) What is the coordination number of atoms (a) in a cubic close packed structure? (b) in a body–centered cubic structure?

Question 5. How can you determine the atomic mass of an unknown metal if you know its density?

Question 6. 'Stability of a crystal is reflected in the magnitude of its melting points'. Comment.
Collect melting points of solid water, ethyl alcohol, diethyl ether and methane from a data book. What can you say about the intermolecular forces between these molecules?

Question 7. How will you distinguish between the following pairs of terms (i) Hexagonal close packing and cubic close packing (ii) Crystal lattice and unit cell (iii) Tetrahedral void and octahedral void.

Question 8 How many lattice points are there in one unit cell of each of the following lattice? (i) Face–centred cubic (ii) Face–centred tetragonal (iii) Body–centred

Question 9. Explain (i) The basis of similarities and differences between metallic and ionic crystals. (ii) Ionic solids are hard and brittle.

Question 10 Calculate the efficiency of packing in case of a metal crystal for (i) simple cubic (ii) body–centred cubic (iii) face–centred cubic (with the assumptions that atoms are touching each other).

Question 11 Silver crystallises in fcc lattice. If edge length of the cell is 4.07 × 10-8 cm and density is 0.5 g cm3, calculate the atomic mass of silver.

Question 12 A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms of Q are at the corners of the cube and P at the body–centre. What is the formula of the compound? What are the coordination numbers of P and Q?

Question 13 Niobium crystallises in body–centred cubic structure. If density is 8.55 g cm–3, calculate atomic radius of niobium using its atomic mass 93 u.

Question 14 If the radius of the octahedral void is r and radius of the atoms in closepacking is R, derive relation between r and R.

Question 15 Copper crystallises into a fcc lattice with edge length 3.61 × 10–8 cm. Show that the calculated density is in agreement with its measured value of 8.92 g cm-3.

Question 16 Analysis shows that nickel oxide has the formula Ni0.98O1.00. What fractions of nickel exist as Ni2+ and Ni3+ ions?

Question 17 What is a semiconductor? Describe the two main types of semiconductors and contrast their conduction mechanism.

Question 18: Non–stoichiometric cuprous oxide, Cu2O can be prepared in laboratory. In this oxide, copper to oxygen ratio is slightly less than 2:1. Can you account for the fact that this substance is a p–type semiconductor?

Question 19: Ferric oxide crystallises in a hexagonal close–packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by ferric ions. Derive the formula of the ferric oxide.

Question 20: Classify each of the following as being either a p–type or an n–type semiconductor: (i) Ge doped with In (ii) B doped with Si.

Question 21: Gold (atomic radius = 0.144 nm) crystallises in a face–centred unit cell. What is the length of a side of the cell?

Question 22: In terms of band theory, what is the difference (i) Between a conductor and an insulator (ii) Between a conductor and a semiconductor

Question 23: Explain the following terms with suitable examples: (i) Schottky defect (ii) Frenkel defect (iii) Interstitials and (iv) F–centres

Question 24: Aluminium crystallises in a cubic close–packed structure. Its metallic radius is 125 pm. (i) What is the length of the side of the unit cell? (ii) How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm3 of aluminum?

Question 25: If NaCl is doped with 10−3 mol % of SrCl2, what is the concentration of cation vacancies?

Question 26: Explain the following with suitable examples: (i) Ferromagnetism (ii)Paramagnetism (iii)Ferrimagnetism (iv)Antiferromagnetism (v)12–16 and 13–15 group compounds.

:: Chapter 2 - Solutions ::

EXERCISE

2.2 Give an example of a solid solution in which the solute is a gas.

2.3 Define the following terms:
(i) Mole fraction

2.3 Define the following terms:
(ii) Molality

2.3 Define the following terms:
(iii) Molarity

2.3 Define the following terms:
(iv) Mass percentage.

2.4 Concentrated nitric acid used in laboratory work is 68% nitric acid by mass in aqueous solution. What should be the molarity of such a sample of the acid if the density of the solution is 1.504 g mL–1?

2.5 A solution of glucose in water is labelled as 10% w/w, what would be the molality and mole fraction of each component in the solution? If the density of solution is 1.2 g mL–1, then what shall be the molarity of the solution?

2.6 How many mL of 0.1 M HCl are required to react completely with 1 g mixture of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 containing equimolar amounts of both?

2.7 A solution is obtained by mixing 300 g of 25% solution and 400 g of 40% solution by mass. Calculate the mass percentage of the resulting solution.

2.8 An antifreeze solution is prepared from 222.6 g of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) and 200 g of water. Calculate the molality of the solution. If the density of the solution is 1.072 g mL–1, then what shall be the molarity of the solution?

:: Chapter 3 - Electrochemistry ::

CONCEPT

Electrochemistry and It's Uses

construction and functioning of Daniell cell

electrode potential, cell potential & Represent a galvanic cell

Structure and Working of Standard Hydrogen Electrode

measure the standard potential of Cu²⁺

Use of platinum or gold in standard hydrogen electrode

What is the Nernst Equation

Relation between EӨcell and Kc

Nernst Equation for the given chemical reaction

Gibbs energy of reaction taking place in an electrochemical cell

Conductance of Electrolytic Solutions

What is cell constant

What is a superconductor

Factor effecting conductance & ionic conductance

What are Electronically conducting polymers and there advantages

Problems takes place in measuring of conductivity

What is a conductivity cell

Method to measure conductance using Wheatstone bridge

Concept of Molar Conductivity

Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions

How to measure equilibrium constant and limiting molar conductivity of week electrolytite

Faraday's Laws of Electrolysis

Explain type of cells

What is corrosion explain how corrosion works as a cell

What is hydrogen economy

EXERCISE

Question 1:Arrange the following metals in the order in which they displace each other from the solution of their salts.
Al, Cu, Fe, Mg and Zn

Question 2:Given the standard electrode potentials,
K⁺/K = −2.93V, Ag⁺/Ag = 0.80V,
Hg²⁺/Hg = 0.79V
Mg²⁺/Mg = −2.37 V, Cr³⁺/Cr = − 0.74V Arrange these metals in their increasing order of reducing power.

Question 3:Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s) takes place. Further show:

(i) Which of the electrode is negatively charged?
(ii) The carriers of the current in the cell.
(iii) Individual reaction at each electrode.

Question 4:Calculate the standard cell potentials of galvanic cells in which the following reactions take place:

(i) 2Cr(s) + 3Cd²⁺(aq) → 2Cr³⁺(aq) + 3Cd
(ii) Fe²⁺(aq) + Ag⁺(aq) → Fe³⁺(aq) + Ag(s)

Calculate the =∆rGθ and equilibrium constant of the reactions.

Question 5:Write the Nernst equation and emf of the following cells at 298 K:

(i) Mg(s) | Mg²⁺(0.001M) || Cu²⁺(0.0001 M) | Cu(s)
(ii) Fe(s) | Fe²⁺(0.001M) || H⁺(1M)|H₂(g)(1bar) | Pt(s)
(iii) Sn(s) | Sn²⁺(0.050 M) || H⁺(0.020 M) | H₂(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)
(iv) Pt(s) | Br₂(l) | Br−(0.010 M) || H

Question 6:In the button cells widely used in watches and other devices the following reaction takesplace:

Zn(s) + Ag₂O(s) + H₂O(l) → Zn²+(aq) + 2Ag(s) + 2OH⁻(aq) Determine and for the reaction.

Question 7:Define conductivity and molar conductivity for the solution of an electrolyte. Discuss their variation with concentration.

Question 8:The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 Scm−1. Calculate its molar conductivity.

Question 9:The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is 500M. What is the cell constant if conductivity of 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10−3S cm^−1.

Question 10:The conductivity of sodium chloride at 298 K has been determined at different concentrations and the results are given below:

Question 11: Conductivity of 0.00241 M acetic acid is 7.896 × 10⁻⁵ S cm⁻¹. Calculate its molar conductivity and if for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm² mol⁻¹, what is its dissociation constant?

Question 12:How much charge is required for the following reductions:

(i) 1 mol of Al³⁺ to Al.
(ii) 1 mol of Cu²⁺ to Cu.
(iii) 1 mol of MnO^4– to Mn²⁺.

Question 13:How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce

(i) 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl₂.
(ii) 40.0 g of Al from molten Al₂O₃.

Question 14: How much electricity is required in coulomb for the oxidation of (i) 1 mol of H2O to O2. (ii) 1 mol of FeO to Fe₂O₃.

Question 15: A solution of Ni(NO₃)2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5 amperes for 20 minutes. What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode?

Question 16:Three electrolytic cells A,B,C containing solutions of ZnSO₄, AgNO3 and CuSO₄, respectively are connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.4 g of silver deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the current flow? What mass of copper and zinc were deposited?

Question 17: Using the standard electrode potentials given in Table 3.1, predict if the reaction between the following is feasible:

(i) Fe₃₊(aq) and I⁻(aq)
(ii) A^g+ (aq) and Cu(s)
(iii) Fe³⁺ (aq) and Br−(aq)
(iv) Ag(s) and Fe³⁺(aq)
(v) Br² (aq) and Fe²⁺(aq).

Question 18: Predict the products of electrolysis in each of the following:

(i) An aqueous solution of AgNO₃ with silver electrodes.
(ii) An aqueous solution of AgNO₃with platinum electrodes.
(iii) A dilute solution of H₂SO₄with platinum electrodes.
(iv) An aqueous solution of CuCl₂ with platinum electrodes.

IN TEXT SOLUTION

Question 3.1: How would you determine the standard electrode potential of the systemMg2+ | Mg?
Can you store copper sulphate solutions in a zinc pot?

Question 3.3:Consult the table of standard electrode potentials and suggest three substances that an oxidise ferrous ions under suitable conditions.

Question 3.4:Calculate the potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 10.

Question 3.5: Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place:

Question 3.6: The cell in which the following reactions occurs:

Question 3.7: Why does the conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution?

Question 3.8:Suggest a way to determine the Λ°m value of water.

Question 3.9:The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L−1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2 mol−1. Calculate its degree of dissociation and dissociation constant. Given λ0(H+)= 349.6 S cm2 mol–1 and λ0(HCOO–) = 54.6 S cm2 mol–1

Question 3.10:If a current of 0.5 ampere flows through a metallic wire for 2 hours, then how many electrons would flow through the wire?

Question 3.11:Suggest a list of metals that are extracted electrolytically.

Question 3.12:Consider the reaction:
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e– → 2Cr3+ + 8H2O
What is the quantity of electricity in coulombs needed to reduce 1 mol of Cr2O72– ?

Question 3.14:Suggest two materials other than hydrogen that can be used as fuels in fuel cells.

Question 3.15: Explain how rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of an electrochemical cell.

:: Chapter 4 - Chemical Kinetics ::

Question 4.11 The following results have been obtained during the kinetic studies of the reaction: 2A + B → C + D Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction.

Question 4.12 The reaction between A and B is first order with respect to A and zero order with respect to B. Fill in the blanks in the following table:

Question 4.13 Calculate the half-life of a first order reaction from their rate constants given below:

(i) 200 s–1
(ii) 2 min–1
(iii) 4 years–1

Question 4.14 The half-life for radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 years. An archaeological artifact containing wood had only 80% of the 14C found in a living tree. Estimate the age of the sample.

Question 4.15 The experimental data for decomposition of N2O5 [2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2] in gas phase at 318K are given below:

(i) Plot [N2O5] against t.
(ii) Find the half-life period for the reaction.
(iii) Draw a graph between log[N2O5] and t.
(iv) What is the rate law ?
(v) Calculate the rate constant.
(vi) Calculate the half-life period from k and compare it with (ii).

Question 4.16 The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s–1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16th value?

Question 4.17 During nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90Sr with half-life of 28.1 years. If 1μg of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium, how much of it will remain after 10 years and 60 years if it is not lost metabolically.

Question 4.18 For a first order reaction, show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time required for the completion of 90% of reaction.

Question 4.19 A first order reaction takes 40 min for 30% decomposition. Calculate t1/2.

Question 4.20 For the decomposition of azoisopropane to hexane and nitrogen at 543 K, the following data are obtained. Calculate the rate constant.

Question 4.21 The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of SO2Cl2 at a constant volume. SO2Cl2 (g) → SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)

Question 4.22 The rate constant for the decomposition of N2O5 at various temperatures is given below: Draw a graph between ln k and 1/T and calculate the values of A and Ea. Predict the rate constant at 30° and 50°C.

Question 4.23 The rate constant for the decomposition of hydrocarbons is 2.418 × 10–5s–1 at 546 K. If the energy of activation is 179.9 kJ/mol, what will be the value of pre-exponential factor.

Question 4.24 Consider a certain reaction A → Products with k = 2.0 × 10–2s–1. Calculate the concentration of A remaining after 100 s if the initial concentration of A is 1.0 mol L–1.

Question 4.25 Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to the first order rate law, with t1/2 = 3.00 hours. What fraction of sample of sucrose remains after 8 hours ?

Question 4.26 The decomposition of hydrocarbon follows the equation k = ( 4.5 × 1011s–1) e-28000K/T Calculate Ea.

Question 4.27 The rate constant for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is given by the following equation: log k = 14.34 – 1.25 × 104K/T Calculate Ea for this reaction and at what temperature will its half-period be 256 minutes?

Question 4.28 The decomposition of A into product has value of k as4.5 × 103 s–1 at 10°C and energy of activation 60 kJ mol–1. At what temperature would k be 1.5 × 104s–1?

Question 4.29 The time required for 10% completion of a first order reaction at 298K is equal to that required for its 25% completion at 308K. If the value of A is 4 × 1010s–1. Calculate k at 318K and Ea.

Question 4.30 The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.

:: Chapter 5 - Surface Chemistry ::

Question 5.1 Distinguish between the meaning of the terms adsorption and absorption. Give one example of each.

Question 5.2 What is the difference between physisorption and chemisorption?

Question 5.3 Give reason why a finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent.

Question 5.4 What are the factors which influence the adsorption of a gas on a solid?

Question 5.5 What is an adsorption isotherm? Describe Freundlich adsorption isotherm.

Question 5.6 What do you understand by activation of adsorbent? How is it achieved?

Question 5.7 What role does adsorption play in heterogeneous catalysis?

Question 5.8 Why is adsorption always exothermic ?

Question 5.9 How are the colloidal solutions classified on the basis of physical states of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium?

Question 5.10 Discuss the effect of pressure and temperature on the adsorption of gases on solids.

Question 5.11 What are lyophilic and lyophobic sols? Give one example of each type. Why are hydrophobic sols easily coagulated ?

Question 5.12 What is the difference between multimolecular and macromolecular colloids? Give one example of each. How are associated colloids different from these two types of colloids

Question 5.13 What are enzymes ? Write in brief the mechanism of enzyme catalysis.

Question 5.14 How are colloids classified on the basis of (i) physical states of components (ii) nature of dispersion medium and (iii) interaction between dispersed phase and dispersion medium

Question 5.15 Explain what is observed

(i) when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol.
(ii) an electrolyte, NaCl is added to hydrated ferric oxide sol.
(iii) electric current is passed through a colloidal sol?

Question 5.16 What are emulsions? What are their different types? Give example of each type.

Question 5.17 What is demulsification? Name two demulsifiers.

Question 5.18 Action of soap is due to emulsification and micelle formation. Comment.

Question 5.19 Give four examples of heterogeneous catalysis.

Question 5.20 What do you mean by activity and selectivity of catalysts?

Question 5.21 Describe some features of catalysis by zeolites.

Question 5.22 What is shape selective catalysis?

Question 5.23 Explain the following terms:

(i) Electrophoresis
(ii) Coagulation
(iii) Dialysis
(iv) Tyndall effect.

Question 5.24 Give four uses of emulsions.

Question 5.25 What are micelles? Give an example of a micellers system.

Question 5.26 Explain the terms with suitable examples:

(i) Alcosol
(ii) Aerosol
(iii) Hydrosol.

Question 5.27 Comment on the statement that "colloid is not a substance but a state of substance"

:: Chapter 6 - General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements ::

Question 6.1 Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not zinc. Explain.

Question 6.2 What is the role of depressant in froth floatation process?

Question 6.3 Why is the extraction of copper from pyrites more difficult than that from its oxide ore through reduction?

Question 6.4 Explain:
(i) Zone refining
(ii) Column chromatography.

Question 6.5 Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent at 673 K ?

Question 6.6 Name the common elements present in the anode mud in electrolytic refining of copper. Why are they so present ?

Question 6.7 Write down the reactions taking place in different zones in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron.

Question 6.8 Write chemical reactions taking place in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende.

Question 6.9 State the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.

Question 6.10 What is meant by the term "chromatography"?

Question 6.11 What criterion is followed for the selection of the stationary phase in chromatography?

Question 6.12 Describe a method for refining nickel.

Question 6.13 How can you separate alumina from silica in a bauxite ore associated with silica? Give equations, if any.

Question 6.14 Giving examples, differentiate between 'roasting' and 'calcination'.

Question 6.15 How is 'cast iron' different from 'pig iron"?

Question 6.16 Differentiate between "minerals" and "ores".

Question 6.17 Why copper matte is put in silica lined converter?

Question 6.18 What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium ?

Question 6.19 How is leaching carried out in case of low grade copper ores?

Question 6.20 Why is zinc not extracted from zinc oxide through reduction using CO?

Question 6.21 The value of ΔfG0 for formation of Cr2 O3 is – 540 kJmol−1and that of Al2 O3 is – 827 kJmol−1. Is the reduction of Cr2 O3 possible with Al ?

Question 6.22 Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for ZnO ?

Question 6.23 The choice of a reducing agent in a particular case depends on thermodynamic factor. How far do you agree with this statement? Support your opinion with two examples.

Question 6.24 Name the processes from which chlorine is obtained as a by-product. What will happen if an aqueous solution of NaCl is subjected to electrolysis?

Question 6.25 What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?

Question 6.27 Outline the principles of refining of metals by the following methods:

(i) Zone refining
(ii) Electrolytic refining
(iii) Vapour phase refining

Question 6.28 Predict conditions under which Al might be expected to reduce MgO. (Hint: See Intext question 6.4)

:: Chapter 7 - The p-Block Elements ::

Question 7.1 Discuss the general characteristics of Group 15 elements with reference to their electronic configuration, oxidation state, atomic size, ionisation enthalpy and electronegativity.

Question 7.2 Why does the reactivity of nitrogen differ from phosphorus?

Question 7.3 Discuss the trends in chemical reactivity of group 15 elements.

Question 7.4 Why does NH3 form hydrogen bond but PH3 does not?

Question 7.5 How is nitrogen prepared in the laboratory? Write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.

Question 7.6 How is ammonia manufactured industrially?

Question 7.7 Illustrate how copper metal can give different products on reaction with HNO3.

Question 7.8 Give the resonating structures of NO2 and N2O5.

Question 7.9 The HNH angle value is higher than HPH, HAsH and HSbH angles. Why? [Hint: Can be explained on the basis of sp3 hybridisation in NH3 and only s–p bonding between hydrogen and other elements of the group].

Question 7.10 Why does R3P = O exist but R3N = O does not (R = alkyl group)?

Question 7.11 Explain why NH3 is basic while BiH3 is only feebly basic.

Question 7.12 Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecule and phosphorus as P4. Why?

Question 7.13 Write main differences between the properties of white phosphorus and red phosphorus.

Question 7.14 Why does nitrogen show catenation properties less than phosphorus?

Question 7.15 Give the disproportionation reaction of H3PO3.

Question 7.16 Can PCl5 act as an oxidising as well as a reducing agent? Justify.

Question 7.17 Justify the placement of O, S, Se, Te and Po in the same group of the periodic table in terms of electronic configuration, oxidation state and hydride formation.

Question 7.18 Why is dioxygen a gas but sulphur a solid?

Question 7.19 Knowing the electron gain enthalpy values for O → O– and O → O2– as –141 and 702 kJ mol–1 respectively, how can you account for the formation of a large number of oxides having O2– species and not O–? (Hint: Consider lattice energy factor in the formation of compounds).

Question 7.20 Which aerosols deplete ozone?

Question 7.21 Describe the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process?

Question 7.22 How is SO2 an air pollutant?

Question 7.23 Why are halogens strong oxidising agents?

Question 7.24 Explain why fluorine forms only one oxoacid, HOF.

Question 7.25 Explain why inspite of nearly the same electronegativity, oxygen forms hydrogen bonding while chlorine does not.

Question 7.26 Write two uses of ClO2.

Question 7.27 Why are halogens coloured?

Question 7.28 Write the reactions of F2 and Cl2 with water.

Question 7.29 How can you prepare Cl2 from HCl and HCl from Cl2? Write reactions only.

Question 7.30 What inspired N. Bartlett for carrying out reaction between Xe and PtF6?

Question 7.31 What are the oxidation states of phosphorus in the following:

(i) H3PO3
(ii) PCl3
(iii) Ca3P2
(iv) Na3PO4
(v) POF3? Exercises Chemistry 208

Question 7.32 Write balanced equations for the following:

(i) NaCl is heated with sulphuric acid in the presence of MnO2.
(ii) Chlorine gas is passed into a solution of NaI in water.

Question 7.33 How are xenon fluorides XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 obtained?

Question 7.34 With what neutral molecule is ClO– isoelectronic? Is that molecule a Lewis base?

Question 7.35 How are XeO3 and XeOF4 prepared?

Question 7.36 Arrange the following in the order of property indicated for each set:

(i) F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 - increasing bond dissociation enthalpy.
(ii) HF, HCl, HBr, HI - increasing acid strength.
(iii) NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3 – increasing base strength.

Question 7.37 Which one of the following does not exist?

(i) XeOF4
(ii) NeF2
(iii) XeF2
(iv) XeF6

Question 7.38 Give the formula and describe the structure of a noble gas species which is isostructural with:

(i) ICl4 –
(ii) IBr2 –
(iii) BrO3 –

Question 7.39 Why do noble gases have comparatively large atomic sizes?

Question 7.40 List the uses of neon and argon gases.

:: Chapter 8 - The d- and f- Block Elements ::

Question 8.1 Write down the electronic configuration of:

(i) Cr3+
(iii) Cu+
(v) Co2 +
(vii) Mn2+
(ii) Pm3+
(iv) Ce4+
(vi) Lu2+
(viii) Th4+

Question 8.2 Why are Mn2+ compounds more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state?

Question 8.3 Explain briefly how +2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?

Question 8.4 To what extent do the electronic configurations decide the stability of oxidation states in the first series of the transition elements? Illustrate your answer with examples.

Question 8.5 What may be the stable oxidation state of the transition element with the following d electron configurations in the ground state of their atoms : 3d3, 3d5, 3d8 and 3d4?

Question 8.6 Name the oxometal anions of the first series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the oxidation state equal to its group number.

Question 8.7 What is lanthanoid contraction? What are the consequences of lanthanoid contraction?

Question 8.8 What are the characteristics of the transition elements and why are they called transition elements? Which of the d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements?

Question 8.9 In what way is the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from that of the non transition elements?

Question 8.10 What are the different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids?

Question 8.11 Explain giving reasons:

(i) Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii) The enthalpies of atomisation of the transition metals are high.
(iii) The transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
(iv) Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalyst

Question 8.12 What are interstitial compounds? Why are such compounds well known for transition metals?

Question 8.13 How is the variability in oxidation states of transition metals different from that of the non transition metals? Illustrate with examples.

Question 8.14 Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore. What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of potassium dichromate?

Question 8.15 Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its reaction with: (i) iodide (ii) iron(II) solution and (iii) H2S Exercises 235 The d- and f- Block Elements

Question 8.16 Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate. How does the acidified permanganate solution react with (i) iron(II) ions (ii) SO2 and (iii) oxalic acid? Write the ionic equations for the reactions.

Question 8.17 For M2+/M and M3+/M2+ systems the EV values for some metals are as follows: Cr2+/Cr -0.9V Cr3/Cr2+ -0.4 V Mn2+/Mn -1.2V Mn3+/Mn2+ +1.5 V Fe2+/Fe -0.4V Fe3+/Fe2+ +0.8 V Use this data to comment upon: (i) the stability of Fe3+ in acid solution as compared to that of Cr3+ or Mn3+ and (ii) the ease with which iron can be oxidised as compared to a similar process for either chromium or manganese metal.

Question 8.18 Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution? Ti3+, V3+, Cu+, Sc3+, Mn2+, Fe3+ and Co2+. Give reasons for each.

Question 8.19 Compare the stability of +2 oxidation state for the elements of the first transition series.

Question 8.20 Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of the lanthanoids with special reference to: (i) electronic configuration (iii) oxidation state (ii) atomic and ionic sizes and (iv) chemical reactivity.

Question 8.21 How would you account for the following:

(i) Of the d4 species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while manganese(III) is strongly oxidising.
(ii) Cobalt(II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents it is easily oxidised.
(iii) The d1 configuration is very unstable in ions.

Question 8.22 What is meant by 'disproportionation'? Give two examples of disproportionation reaction in aqueous solution.

Question 8.23 Which metal in the first series of transition metals exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?

Question 8.24 Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous ions: Mn3+, Cr3+, V3+ and Ti3+. Which one of these is the most stable in aqueous solution?

Question 8.25 Give examples and suggest reasons for the following features of the transition metal chemistry

(i) The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic, the highest is amphoteric/acidic.
(ii) A transition metal exhibits highest oxidation state in oxides and fluorides.
(iii) The highest oxidation state is exhibited in oxoanions of a metal.

Question 8.26 Indicate the steps in the preparation of:

(i) K2Cr2O7 from chromite ore.
(ii) KMnO4 from pyrolusite ore.

Question 8.27 What are alloys? Name an important alloy which contains some of the lanthanoid metals. Mention its uses.

Question 8.28 What are inner transition elements? Decide which of the following atomic numbers are the atomic numbers of the inner transition elements : 29, 59, 74, 95, 102, 104.

Question 8.29 The chemistry of the actinoid elements is not so smooth as that of the lanthanoids. Justify this statement by giving some examples from the oxidation state of these elements.

Question 8.30 Which is the last element in the series of the actinoids? Write the electronic configuration of this element. Comment on the possible oxidation state of this element.

:: Chapter 9 - Coordination Compounds ::

Question 9.1 Explain the bonding in coordination compounds in terms of Werner's postulates.

Question 9.2 FeSO4 solution mixed with (NH4)2SO4 solution in 1:1 molar ratio gives the test of Fe2+ ion but CuSO4 solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1:4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu2+ ion. Explain why?

Question 9.3 Explain with two examples each of the following: coordination entity, ligand, coordination number, coordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heteroleptic.

Question 9.4 What is meant by unidentate, didentate and ambidentate ligands? Give two examples for each.

Question 9.5 Specify the oxidation numbers of the metals in the following coordination entities:
(i) [Co(H2O)(CN)(en)2]2+
(ii) [CoBr2(en)2]+
(iii) [PtCl4]2–
(iv) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(v) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3 ]

Question 9.6 Using IUPAC norms write the formulas for the following:
(i) Tetrahydroxozincate(II)
(ii) Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)
(iii) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
(iv) Potassium tetracyanonickelate(II)
(v) Pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III)
(vi) Hexaamminecobalt(III) sulphate
(vii) Potassium tri(oxalato)chromate(III)
(viii) Hexaammineplatinum(IV)
(ix) Tetrabromidocuprate(II)
(x) Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III)

Question 9.7 Using IUPAC norms write the systematic names of the following:
(i) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(ii) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl
(iii) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
(iv) [Co(NH3)4Cl(NO2)]Cl
(v) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(vi) [NiCl4]2–
(vii) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
(viii) [Co(en)3]3+
(ix) [Ni(CO)4]

Question 9.8 List various types of isomerism possible for coordination compounds, giving an example of each.

Question 9.9 How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following coordination entities?
(i) [Cr(C2O4)3]3–
(ii) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

Question 9.10 Draw the structures of optical isomers of:
(i) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (ii) [PtCl2(en)2]2+
(iii) [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+ 259 Coordination Compounds

Question 9.11 Draw all the isomers (geometrical and optical) of:
(i) [CoCl2(en)2]+
(ii) [Co(NH3)Cl(en)2]2+
(iii) [Co(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+

Question 9.12 Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)(py)] and how many of these will exhibit optical isomers?

Question 9.13 Aqueous copper sulphate solution (blue in colour) gives: (i) a green precipitate with aqueous potassium fluoride and (ii) a bright green solution with aqueous potassium chloride. Explain these experimental results.

Question 9.14 What is the coordination entity formed when excess of aqueous KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained when H2S(g) is passed through this solution?

Question 9.15 Discuss the nature of bonding in the following coordination entities on the basis of valence bond theory:
(i) [Fe(CN)6]4–
(ii) [FeF6]3–
(iii) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(iv) [CoF6]3–

Question 9.16 Draw figure to show the splitting of d orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.

Question 9.17 What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand and a strong field ligand.

Question 9.18 What is crystal field splitting energy? How does the magnitude of Δo decide the actual configuration of d orbitals in a coordination entity?

Question 9.19 [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4]2– is diamagnetic. Explain why?

Question 9.20 A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green but a solution of [Ni(CN)4]2– is colourless. Explain.

Question 9.21 [Fe(CN)6]4– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ are of different colours in dilute solutions. Why?

Question 9.22 Discuss the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.

Question 9.23 Give the oxidation state, d orbital occupation and coordination number of the central metal ion in the following complexes:
(i) K3[Co(C2O4)3]
(iii) (NH4)2[CoF4]
(ii) cis-[Cr(en)2Cl2]C l
(iv) [Mn(H2O)6]SO4

Question 9.24 Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate the oxidation state, electronic configuration and coordination number. Also give stereochemistry and magnetic moment of the complex:
(i) K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2].3H2O
(ii) [Co(NH3)5Cl-]Cl2
(iii) CrCl3(py)3
(iv) Cs[FeCl4]
(v) K4[Mn(CN)6]

Question 9.25 What is meant by stability of a coordination compound in solution? State the factors which govern stability of complexes.

Question 9.26 What is meant by the chelate effect? Give an example. 9

Question 9.27 Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of coordination compounds in:
(i) biological systems
(iii) analytical chemistry
(ii) medicinal chemistry
(iv) extraction/metallurgy of metals.

Question 9.28 How many ions are produced from the complex Co(NH3)6Cl2 in solution?
(i) 6
(ii) 4
(iii) 3
(iv) 2

Question 9.29 Amongst the following ions which one has the highest magnetic moment value?
(i) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(ii) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(iii) [Zn(H2O)6]2+

Question 9.30 The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is
(i) +1
(ii) +3
(iii) –1
(iv) –3

:: Chapter 10 - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes ::

Question 10.1 Name the following halides according to IUPAC system and classify them as alkyl, allyl, benzyl (primary, secondary, tertiary), vinyl or aryl halides:
(i) (CH3)2CHCH(Cl)CH3
(ii) CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH(C2H5)Cl
(iii) CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2I
(iv) (CH3)3CCH2CH(Br)C6H5
(v) CH3CH(CH3)CH(Br)CH3
(vi) CH3C(C2H5)2CH2Br
(vii) CH3C(Cl)(C2H5)CH2CH3
(viii) CH3CH=C(Cl)CH2CH(CH3)2
(ix) CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2
(x) p-ClC6H4CH2CH(CH3)2
(xi) m-ClCH2C6H4CH2C(CH3)3
(xii) o-Br-C6H4CH(CH3)CH2CH3

Question 10.2 Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds:
(i) CH3CH(Cl)CH(Br)CH3
(ii) CHF2CBrClF
(iii) ClCH2C≡CCH2Br (iv) (CCl3)3CCl
(v) CH3C(p-ClC6H4)2CH(Br)CH3
(vi) (CH3)3CCH=ClC6H4I-p

Question 10.3 Write the structures of the following organic halogen compounds.
(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) p-Bromochlorobenzene
(iii) 1-Chloro-4-ethylcyclohexane
(iv) 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-1-iodooctane
(v) Perfluorobenzene
(vi) 4-tert-Butyl-3-iodoheptane
(vii) 1-Bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methylbenzene
(viii) 1,4-Dibromobut-2-ene

Question 10.4 Which one of the following has the highest dipole moment?
(i) CH2Cl2
(ii) CHCl3
(iii) CCl4

Question 10.5 A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with chlorine in dark but gives a single monochloro compound C5H9Cl in bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon.

Question 10.6 Write the isomers of the compound having formula C4H9Br.

Question 10.7 Write the equations for the preparation of 1-iodobutane from
(i) 1-butanol
(ii) 1-chlorobutane
(iii) but-1-ene.

Question 10.8 What are ambident nucleophiles? Explain with an example.

Question 10.9 Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2 reaction with –OH?
(i) CH3Br or CH3I
(ii) (CH3)3CCl or CH3Cl

Question 10.10 Predict all the alkenes that would be formed by dehydrohalogenation of the following halides with sodium ethoxide in ethanol and identify the major alkene:
(i) 1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane
(ii) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
(iii) 2,2,3-Trimethyl-3-bromopentane.

Question 10.11 How will you bring about the following conversions?
(i) Ethanol to but-1-yne
(ii) Ethane to bromoethene
(iii) Propene to 1-nitropropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Propene to propyne
(vi) Ethanol to ethyl fluoride
(vii) Bromomethane to propanone
(viii) But-1-ene to but-2-ene
(ix) 1-Chlorobutane to n-octane
(x) Benzene to biphenyl.

Question 10.12 Explain why
(i) the dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride?
(ii) alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water?
(iii) Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions? 1

Question 10.13 Give the uses of freon 12, DDT, carbon tetrachloride and iodoform. 1

Question 10.14 Write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following reactions:

(iii) 1-Bromobutane, 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane, 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane.

Question 10.17 Out of C6H5CH2Cl and C6H5CHClC6H5, which is more easily hydrolysed by aqueous KOH?

Question 10.18 p-Dichlorobenzene has higher m.p. and solubility than those of o- and m-isomers. Discuss.

Question 10.19 How the following conversions can be carried out?
(i) Propene to propan-1-ol
(ii) Ethanol to but-1-yne
(iii) 1-Bromopropane to 2-bromopropane
(iv) Toluene to benzyl alcohol
(v) Benzene to 4-bromonitrobenzene
(vi) Benzyl alcohol to 2-phenylethanoic acid
(vii) Ethanol to propanenitrile
(viii) Aniline to chlorobenzene
(ix) 2-Chlorobutane to 3, 4-dimethylhexane
(x) 2-Methyl-1-propene to 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
(xi) Ethyl chloride to propanoic acid
(xii) But-1-ene to n-butyliodide
(xiii) 2-Chloropropane to 1-propanol
(xiv) Isopropyl alcohol to iodoform
(xv) Chlorobenzene to p-nitrophenol
(xvi) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(xvii) Chloroethane to butane
(xviii) Benzene to diphenyl
(xix) tert-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
(xx) Aniline to phenylisocyanide

Question 10.20 The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aqueous KOH leads to the formation of alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic KOH, alkenes are major products. Explain.

Question 10.21 Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br
(a) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (b). Compound (b) is reacted with HBr to give (c) which is an isomer of (a). When (a) is reacted with sodium metal it gives compound (d), C8H18 which is different from the compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with sodium. Give the structural formula of (a) and write the equations for all the reactions.

Question 10.22 What happens when
(i) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic KOH
(ii) bromobenzene is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether,
(iii) chlorobenzene is subjected to hydrolysis,
(iv) ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH,
(v) methyl bromide is treated with sodium in the presence of dry ether,
(vi) methyl chloride is treated with KCN?

:: Chapter 11 - Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers ::

Question 11.2 Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows:
(i) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(ii) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
(iii) 3,5-Dimethylhexane –1, 3, 5-triol (iv) 2,3 – Diethylphenol
(v) 1 – Ethoxypropane
(vi) 2-Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
(vii) Cyclohexylmethanol
(viii) 3-Cyclohexylpentan-3-ol
(ix) Cyclopent-3-en-1-ol
(x) 3-Chloromethylpentan-1-ol. 1

Question 11..3 (i) Draw the structures of all isomeric alcohols of molecular formula C5H12O and give their IUPAC names. (ii) Classify the isomers of alcohols in question

Question 11.3 (i) as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.

Question 11.4 Explain why propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon, butane?

Question 11.5 Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.

Question 11.6 What is meant by hydroboration-oxidation reaction? Illustrate it with an example.

Question 11.7 Give the structures and IUPAC names of monohydric phenols of molecular formula, C7H8O.

Question 11.8 While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.

Question 11.9 Give the equations of reactions for the preparation of phenol from cumene.

Question 11.10 Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.

Question 11.11 Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.

Question 11.12 You are given benzene, conc. H2SO4 and NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.

Question 11.13 Show how will you synthesise:
(i) 1-phenylethanol from a suitable alkene .
(ii) cyclohexylmethanol using an alkyl halide by an SN2 reaction.
(iii) pentan-1-ol using a suitable alkyl halide?

Question 11.14 Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare acidity of phenol with that of ethanol.

Question 11.15 Explain why is ortho nitrophenol more acidic than ortho methoxyphenol ?

Question 11.16 Explain how does the –OH group attached to a carbon of benzene ring activate it towards electrophilic substitution?

Question 11.17 Give equations of the following reactions:
(i) Oxidation of propan-1-ol with alkaline KMnO4 solution.
(ii) Bromine in CS2 with phenol.
(iii) Dilute HNO3 with phenol.
(iv) Treating phenol wih chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.

Question 11.18 Explain the following with an example.
(i) Kolbe's reaction.
(ii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
(iii) Williamson ether synthesis.
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether.

Question 11.19 Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.

Question 11.20 How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propene → Propan-2-ol.
(ii) Benzyl chloride → Benzyl alcohol.
(iii) Ethyl magnesium chloride → Propan-1-ol.
(iv) Methyl magnesium bromide → 2-Methylpropan-2-ol.

Question 11.21 Name the reagents used in the following reactions:
(i) Oxidation of a primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
(ii) Oxidation of a primary alcohol to aldehyde.
(iii) Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol.
(iv) Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid. (v) Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propene.
(vi) Butan-2-one to butan-2-ol.

Question 11.22 Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.

Question 11.24 Write the names of reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by Williamson's synthesis:
(i) 1-Propoxypropane
(ii) Ethoxybenzene
(iii) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(iv) 1-Methoxyethane

Question 11.25 Illustrate with examples the limitations of Williamson synthesis for the preparation of certain types of ethers.

Question 11.26 How is 1-propoxypropane synthesised from propan-1-ol? Write mechanism of this reaction.

Question 11.27 Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohols is not a suitable method. Give reason.

Question 11.28 Write the equation of the reaction of hydrogen iodide with:
(i) 1-propoxypropane (ii) methoxybenzene and (iii) benzyl ethyl ether.

Question 11.29 Explain the fact that in aryl alkyl ethers
(i) the alkoxy group activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution and (ii) it directs the incoming substituents to ortho and para positions in benzene ring.

Question 11.30 Write the mechanism of the reaction of HI with methoxymethane.

Question 11.31 Write equations of the following reactions:
(i) Friedel-Crafts reaction – alkylation of anisole.
(ii) Nitration of anisole.
(iii) Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium.
(iv) Friedel-Craft's acetylation of anisole.

Question 11.32 Show how would you synthesise the following alcohols from appropriate

:: Chapter 12 - Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids ::

Question 12.1 What is meant by the following terms ? Give an example of the reaction in each case.

(i) Cyanohydrin
(ii) Acetal
(iii) Semicarbazone
(iv) Aldol
(v) Hemiacetal
(vi) Oxime
(vii) Ketal
(vii) Imine
(ix) 2,4-DNP-derivative
(x) Schiff's base

Question 12.2 Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system of nomenclature:

(i) CH3CH(CH3)CH2CH2CHO
(ii) CH3CH2COCH(C2H5)CH2CH2Cl
(iii) CH3CH=CHCHO
(iv) CH3COCH2COCH3
(v) CH3CH(CH3)CH2C(CH3)2COCH3
(vi) (CH3)3CCH2COOH
(vii) OHCC6H4CHO-p

Question 12.3 Draw the structures of the following compounds.

(i) 3-Methylbutanal
(ii) p-Nitropropiophenone
(iii) p-Methylbenzaldehyde
(iv) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
(v) 4-Chloropentan-2-one
(vi) 3-Bromo-4-phenylpentanoic acid
(vii) p,p'-Dihydroxybenzophenone
(viii) Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid

Question 12.4 Write the IUPAC names of the following ketones and aldehydes. Wherever possible, give also common names.

(i) CH3CO(CH2)4CH3
(ii) CH3CH2CHBrCH2CH(CH3)CHO
(iii) CH3(CH2)5CHO
(iv) Ph-CH=CH-CHO

Question 12.5 Draw structures of the following derivatives.

(i) The 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde
(ii) Cyclopropanone oxime
(iii) Acetaldehydedimethylacetal
(iv) The semicarbazone of cyclobutanone
(v) The ethylene ketal of hexan-3-one
(vi) The methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde

Question 12.6 Predict the products formed when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with following reagents.

(i) PhMgBr and then H3O+
(ii) Tollens' reagent
(iii) Semicarbazide and weak acid
(iv) Excess ethanol and acid
(v) Zinc amalgam and dilute hydrochloric acid

Question 12.7 Which of the following compounds would undergo aldol condensation, which the Cannizzaro reaction and which neither? Write the structures of the expected products of aldol condensation and Cannizzaro reaction.

(i) Methanal
(ii) 2-Methylpentanal
(iii) Benzaldehyde
(iv) Benzophenone
(v) Cyclohexanone
(vi) 1-Phenylpropanone
(vii) Phenylacetaldehyde
(viii) Butan-1-ol
(ix) 2,2-Dimethylbutanal

Question 12.8 How will you convert ethanal into the following compounds?

(i) Butane-1,3-diol
(ii) But-2-enal
(iii) But-2-enoic acid

Question 12.9 Write structural formulas and names of four possible aldol condensation products from propanal and butanal. In each case, indicate which aldehyde acts as nucleophile and which as electrophile.

Question 12.10 An organic compound with the molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollens' reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives 1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid. Identify the compound.

Question 12.11 An organic compound

(A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B) and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (C) on dehydration gives but-1-ene. Write equations for the reactions involved.

Question 12.12 Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their property as indicated:

(i) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di-tert-butyl ketone, Methyl tert-butyl ketone (reactivity towards HCN)
(ii) CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH, (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2CH2COOH (acid strength)
(iii) Benzoic acid, 4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3,4-Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxybenzoic acid (acid strength)

Question 12.13 Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.

(i) Propanal and Propanone
(ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone
(iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
(iv) Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate
(v) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(vi) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
(vii) Ethanal and Propanal

Question 12.14 How will you prepare the following compounds from benzene? You may use any inorganic reagent and any organic reagent having not more than one carbon atom

(i) Methyl benzoate
(ii) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
(iii) p-Nitrobenzoic acid
(iv) Phenylacetic acid
(v) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde.

Question 12.15 How will you bring about the following conversions in not more than two steps?

(i) Propanone to Propene
(ii) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde
(iii) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
(iv) Benzene to m-Nitroacetophenone
(v) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
(vi) Bromobenzene to 1-Phenylethanol
(vii) Benzaldehyde to 3-Phenylpropan-1-ol
(viii) Benazaldehyde to α-Hydroxyphenylacetic acid
(ix) Benzoic acid to m- Nitrobenzyl alcohol

Question 12.16 Describe the following:

(i) Acetylation
(ii) Cannizzaro reaction
(iii) Cross aldol condensation
(iv) Decarboxylation

Question 12.18 Give plausible explanation for each of the following:

(i) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethylcyclohexanone does not.
(ii) There are two –NH2 groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazones.
(iii) During the preparation of esters from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, the water or the ester should be removed as soon as it is formed.

Question 12.19 An organic compound contains 69.77% carbon, 11.63% hydrogen and rest oxygen. The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tollens' reagent but forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogensulphite and give positive iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation it gives ethanoic and propanoic acid. Write the possible structure of the compound.

Question 12.20 Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why?

:: Chapter 13 - Amines ::

Question 13.1 Write IUPAC names of the following compounds and classify them into primary, secondary and tertiary amines.

(i) (CH3)2CHNH2
(ii) CH3(CH2)2NH2
(iii) CH3NHCH(CH3)2
(iv) (CH3)3CNH2
(v) C6H5NHCH3
(vi) (CH3CH2)2NCH3
(vii) m–BrC6H4NH2

Question 13.2 Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.

(i) Methylamine and dimethylamine
(ii) Secondary and tertiary amines
(iii) Ethylamine and aniline
(iv) Aniline and benzylamine
(v) Aniline and N-methylaniline.

Question 13.3 Account for the following:

(i) pKb of aniline is more than that of methylamine.
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not .
(iii) Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
(iv) Although amino group is o– and p– directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline.
(v) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(vi) Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable th an those of aliphatic amines.
(vii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines.

Question 13.4 Arrange the following:

(i) In decreasing order of the pKb values: C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH and C6H5NH2
(ii) In increasing order of basic strength: C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C2H5)2NH and CH3NH2
(iii) In increasing order of basic strength: (a) Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p-toluidine (b) C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2.
(iv) In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase: C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N and NH3
(v) In increasing order of boiling point: C2H5OH, (CH3)2NH, C2H5NH2
(vi) In increasing order of solubility in water: C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2.

Question 13.5 How will you convert:

(i) Ethanoic acid into methanamine
(ii) Hexanenitrile into 1-aminopentane
(iii) Methanol to ethanoic acid
(iv) Ethanamine into methanamine
(v) Ethanoic acid into propanoic acid
(vi) Methanamine into ethanamine
(vii) Nitromethane into dimethylamine
(viii) Propanoic acid into ethanoic acid?

Question 13.6 Describe a method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Also write chemical equations of the reactions involved.

Question 13.7 Write short notes on the following:

(i) Carbylamine reaction
(ii) Diazotisation
(iii) Hofmann's bromamide reaction
(iv) Coupling reaction
(v) Ammonolysis
(vi) Acetylation
(vii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Question 13.8 Accomplish the following conversions:

(i) Nitrobenzene to benzoic acid
(ii) Benzene to m-bromophenol
(iii) Benzoic acid to aniline
(iv) Aniline to 2,4,6-tribromofluorobenzene
(v) Benzyl chloride to 2-phenylethanamine
(vi) Chlorobenzene to p-chloroaniline
(vii) Aniline to p-bromoaniline
(viii) Benzamide to toluene
(ix) Aniline to benzyl alcoho

Question 13.10 An aromatic compound 'A' on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound 'B' which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound 'C' of molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compounds A, B and C.

Question 13.11 Complete the following reactions:

(i) C6H5NH2 + CHCl3 + alc.KOH →
(ii) C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O →
(iii) ( ) C6H5NH2 + H2SO4 conc. →
(iv) C6H5N2Cl + C2H5OH →
(v) ( ) C6H5NH2 +Br2 aq →
(vi) ( ) 6 5 2 3 2 C H NH + CH CO O →
(vii) ( ) ( ) 4 2 i HBF 6 5 2 ii NaNO /Cu, C H N Cl Δ→

Question 13.12 Why cannot aromatic primary amines be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?

Question 13.13 Write the reactions of (i) aromatic and (ii) aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.

Question 13.14 Give plausible explanation for each of the following:

(i) Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
(ii) Why do primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines?
(iii) Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines?

:: Chapter 14 - Biomolecules ::

Question 14.1 What are monosaccharides?

Question 14.2 What are reducing sugars?

Question 14.3 Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants.

Question 14.4 Classify the following into monosaccharides and disaccharides. Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, maltose, galactose, fructose and lactose.

Question 14.5 What do you understand by the term glycosidic linkage?

Question 14.6 What is glycogen? How is it different from starch?

Question 14.7 What are the hydrolysis products of (i) sucrose and (ii) lactose?

Question 14.8 What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose?

Question 14.9 What happens when D-glucose is treated with the following reagents?

(i) HI
(ii) Bromine water
(iii) HNO3

Question 14.10 Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure.

Question 14.11 What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give two examples of each type.

Question 14.12 Define the following as related to proteins

(i) Peptide linkage
(ii) Primary structure
(iii) Denaturation.

Question 14.13 What are the common types of secondary structure of proteins?

Question 14.14 What type of bonding helps in stabilising the α-helix structure of proteins?

Question 14.15 Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins.

Question 14.16 How do you explain the amphoteric behaviour of amino acids?

Question 14.17 What are enzymes?

Question 14.18 What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins?

Question 14.19 How are vitamins classified? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.

Question 14.20 Why are vitamin A and vitamin C essential to us? Give their important sources.

Question 14.21 What are nucleic acids? Mention their two important functions.

Question 14.22 What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?

Question 14.23 The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.

Question 14.24 Write the important structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA.

Question 14.25 What are the different types of RNA found in the cell?

:: Chapter 15 - Polymers ::

Question 15.1 Explain the terms polymer and monomer.

Question 15.2 What are natural and synthetic polymers? Give two examples of each type.

Question 15.3 Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.

Question 15.4 How do you explain the functionality of a monomer?

Question 15.5 Define the term polymerisation.

Question 15.6 Is ( NH-CHR-CO )n, a homopolymer or copolymer?

Question 15.7 In which classes, the polymers are classified on the basis of molecular forces? Question 15.8 How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymerisation?

Question 15.9 Explain the term copolymerisation and give two examples.

Question 15.10 Write the free radical mechanism for the polymerisation of ethene.

Question 15.11 Define thermoplastics and thermosetting polymers with two examples of each.

Question 15.12 Write the monomers used for getting the following polymers.

(i) Polyvinyl chloride
(ii) Teflon
(iii) Bakelite

Question 15.13 Write the name and structure of one of the common initiators used in free radical addition polymerisation.

Question 15.14 How does the presence of double bonds in rubber molecules influence their structure and reactivity?

Question 15.15 Discuss the main purpose of vulcanisation of rubber.

Question 15.16 What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon-6 and Nylon-6,6?

Question 15.17 Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers:

(i) Buna-S
(ii) Buna-N
(iii) Dacron
(iv) Neoprene

Question 15.18 Identify the monomer in the following polymeric structures.

Question 15.19 How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid ?

Question 15.20 What is a biodegradable polymer ? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.

:: Chapter 16 - Chemistry in Everyday Life ::

Question 16.1 Why do we need to classify drugs in different ways ?

Question 16.2 Explain the term, target molecules or drug targets as used in medicinal chemistry.

Question 16.3 Name the macromolecules that are chosen as drug targets.

Question 16.4 Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors ?

Question 16.5 Define the term chemotherapy.

Question 16.6 Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes ?

Question 16.7 While antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines, why do these not interfere with the function of each other ?

Question 16.8 Low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem ? Name two drugs.

Question 16.9 What is meant by the term 'broad spectrum antibiotics' ? Explain.

Question 16.10 How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants ? Give one example of each.

Question 16.11 Why are cimetidine and ranitidine better antacids than sodium hydrogencarbonate or magnesium or aluminium hydroxide ?

Question 16.12 Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.\

Question 16.13 What are the main constituents of dettol ?

Question 16.14 What is tincture of iodine ? What is its use ?

Question 16.15 What are food preservatives ?

Question 16.16 Why is use of aspartame limited to cold foods and drinks ?

Question 16.17 What are artificial sweetening agents ? Give two examples.

Question 16.18 Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.

Question 16.19 What problem arises in using alitame as artificial sweetener ?

Question 16.20 How are synthetic detergents better than soaps ?

Question 16.21 Explain the following terms with suitable examples
(i) cationic detergents
(ii) anionic detergents
(iii) non-ionic detergents.

Question 16.22 What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable detergents ? Give one example of each.

Question 16.23 Why do soaps not work in hard water ?

Question 16.24 Can you use soaps and synthetic detergents to check the hardness of water ?

Question 16.25 Explain the cleansing action of soaps.

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NCERT Mathematics Question Paper (Class - 12)

Posted: 05 Jun 2018 12:05 AM PDT

NCERT Mathematics Question Paper (Class - 12)

:: Chapter 1 - Number System ::

Q1. Determine whether each of the following relations are reflexive, symmetric and transitive:

(ii) Relation R in the set N of natural numbers defined as
R = {(x, y) : y = x + 5 and x < 4}

(iii) Relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} as
R = {(x, y) : y is divisible by x}

(iv) Relation R in the set Z of all integers defined as
R = {(x, y) : x – y is an integer}

Q 1. Determine whether each of the following relations are reflexive, symmetric and transitive:

(i) Relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, ..., 13, 14} defined as
R = {(x, y) : 3x – y = 0}

Q 1.Determine whether each of the following relations are reflexive, symmetric and transitive:

(v) Relation R in the set A of human beings in a town at a particular time given by

(a) R = {(x, y) : x and y work at the same place}
(b) R = {(x, y) : x and y live in the same locality}
(c) R = {(x, y) : x is exactly 7 cm taller than y}
(d) R = {(x, y) : x is wife of y}
(e) R = {(x, y) : x is father of y}

2. Show that the relation R in the set R of real numbers, defined as
R = {(a, b) : a ? b2} is neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive.

3. Check whether the relation R defined in the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} as
R = {(a, b) : b = a + 1} is reflexive, symmetric or transitive.

4. Show that the relation R in R defined as R = {(a, b) : a ? b}, is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.

5. Check whether the relation R in R defined by R = {(a, b) : a ? b3} is reflexive, symmetric or transitive.

6. Show that the relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)} is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive.

7. Show that the relation R in the set A of all the books in a library of a college, given by R = {(x, y) : x and y have same number of pages} is an equivalence relation.

8. Show that the relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by
R = {(a, b) : |a – b| is even}, is an equivalence relation. Show that all the elements of {1, 3, 5} are related to each other and all the elements of {2, 4} are related to each other. But no element of {1, 3, 5} is related to any element of {2, 4}.

9. Show that each of the relation R in the set A = {x ? Z : 0 ? x ? 12}, given by
(i) R = {(a, b) : |a – b| is a multiple of 4}
(ii) R = {(a, b) : a = b}

:: Chapter 2 - Inverse Trigonometric Functions ::

EXERCISE

Question 1. Find the principal values of the following:

Question 6. Show that the relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)} is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive.

Question 7. Show that the relation R in the set A of all the books in a library of a college, given by R = {(x, y) : x and y have same number of pages} is an equivalence relation.

Question 8. Show that the relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b) :
|a – b| is even}, is an equivalence relation. Show that all the elements of {1, 3, 5} are related to each other and all the elements of {2, 4} are related to each other. But no element of {1, 3, 5} is related to any element of {2, 4}.

Question 9. Show that each of the relation R in the set A = {x ∈ Z : 0 ≤ x ≤ 12}, given by (i) R = {(a, b) : |a – b| is a multiple of 4} (ii) R = {(a, b) : a = b} is an equivalence relation. Find the set of all elements related to 1 in each case.

Question 10. Give an example of a relation. Which is
(i) Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive.
(ii) Transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric.
(iii) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive.
(iv) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.
(v) Symmetric and transitive but not reflexive.

Question 11. Show that the relation R in the set A of points in a plane given by R = {(P, Q) : distance of the point P from the origin is same as the distance of the point Q from the origin}, is an equivalence relation. Further, show that the set of all points related to a point P ≠ (0, 0) is the circle passing through P with origin as centre.

Question 12. Show that the relation R defined in the set A of all triangles as R = {(T1, T2) : T1 is similar to T2}, is equivalence relation. Consider three right angle triangles T1 with sides 3, 4, 5, T2 with sides 5, 12, 13 and T3 with sides 6, 8, 10. Which triangles among T1, T2 and T3 are related?

Question 13. Show that the relation R defined in the set A of all polygons as R = {(P1, P2) : P1 and P2 have same number of sides}, is an equivalence relation. What is the set of all elements in A related to the right angle triangle T with sides 3, 4 and 5?

Question 14. Let L be the set of all lines in XY plane and R be the relation in L defined as R = {(L1, L2) : L1 is parallel to L2}. Show that R is an equivalence relation. Find the set of all lines related to the line y = 2x + 4.

Question 15. Let R be the relation in the set {1, 2, 3, 4} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 2), (1, 1), (4,4), (1, 3), (3, 3), (3, 2)}. Choose the correct answer.
(A) R is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive.
(B) R is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric.
(C) R is symmetric and transitive but not reflexive.
(D) R is an equivalence relation.

Question 16. Let R be the relation in the set N given by R = {(a, b) : a = b – 2, b > 6}. Choose the correct answer.
(A) (2, 4) ∈ R
(B) (3, 8) ∈ R
(C) (6, 8) ∈ R
(D) (8, 7) ∈ R

EXERCISE

Question 1. Show that the function f : R → R defined by f (x) = 1 x is one-one and onto, where R is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain R is replaced by N with co-domain being same as R?

Question 2. Check the injectivity and surjectivity of the following functions:

(i) f : N → N given by f (x) = x2
(ii) f : Z → Z given by f (x) = x2
(iii) f : R → R given by f (x) = x2
(iv) f : N → N given by f (x) = x3
(v) f : Z → Z given by f (x) = x3

Question 3. Prove that the Greatest Integer Function f :
R→R, given by f (x) = [x], is neither one-one nor onto, where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x.

Question 4. Show that the Modulus Function f : R→R, given by f (x) = | x |, is neither oneone nor onto, where | x | is x, if x is positive or 0 and | x | is – x, if x is negative. 5. Show that the Signum Function f : R→R, given by

is neither one-one nor onto.

State whether the function f is bijective. Justify your answer.

Question 10. Let A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f : A → B defined by

Question 11. Let f : R → R be defined as f(x) = x4. Choose the correct answer.
(A) f is one-one onto (B) f is many-one onto
(C) f is one-one but not onto
(D) f is neither one-one nor onto.

Question 12. Let f : R → R be defined as f (x) = 3x. Choose the correct answer.
(A) f is one-one onto
(B) f is many-one onto
(C) f is one-one but not onto
(D) f is neither one-one nor onto.

EXERCISE

Show that is commutative and associative. Find the identity element for on A, if any.

Question 12. State whether the following statements are true or false. Justify.

(i) For an arbitrary binary operation on a set N, a a = a ∀ a ∈ N.
(ii) If is a commutative binary operation on N, then a (b c) = (c b) a

Question 13. Consider a binary operation on N defined as a b = a3 + b3. Choose the correct answer.

(A) Is both associative and commutative?
(B) Is commutative but not associative?
(C) Is associative but not commutative?
(D) Is neither commutative nor associative?

Define the relation R in P(X) as follows: For subsets A, B in P(X), ARB if and only if A ⊂ B. Is R an equivalence relation on P(X)? Justify your answer.

Question 9. Given a non-empty set X, consider the binary operation :

P(X) × P(X) → P(X) given by A B = A ∩ B ∀ A, B in P(X), where P(X) is the power set of X. Show that X is the identity element for this operation and X is the only invertible element in P(X) with respect to the operation

Question 10. Find the number of all onto functions from the set {1, 2, 3, ... , n} to itself.

Question 11. Let S = {a, b, c} and T = {1, 2, 3}. Find F–1 of the following functions F from S to T, if it exists.
(i) F = {(a, 3), (b, 2), (c, 1)}
(ii) F = {(a, 2), (b, 1), (c, 1)}

Question 12. Consider the binary operations : R × R → R and o : R × R → R defined as a b = |a – b| and a o b = a, ∀ a, b ∈ R. Show that is commutative but not associative, o is associative but not commutative. Further, show that ∀ a, b, c ∈ R, a (b o c) = (a b) o (a b). [If it is so, we say that the operation distributes over the operation o]. Does o distribute over ? Justify your answer.

Question 13. Given a non-empty set X, let : P(X) × P(X) → P(X) be defined as A * B = (A – B) ∪ (B – A), ∀ A, B ∈ P(X). Show that the empty set φ is the identity for the operation and all the elements A of P(X) are invertible with A–1 = A. (Hint : (A – φ) ∪ (φ – A) = A and (A – A) ∪ (A – A) = A A = φ).

Question 14. Define a binary operation on the set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} as

:: Chapter 3 - Matrix ::

EXERCISE

Question 1. In the matrix , write

(i) The order of the matrix, (ii) The number of elements,
(iii) Write the elements a13, a21, a33, a24, a23.

Question 2. If a matrix has 24 elements, what are the possible orders it can have? What, if it has 13 elements?

Question 3. If a matrix has 18 elements, what are the possible orders it can have? What, if it has 5 elements ?

Question 4. Construct a 2 × 2 matrix, A = [aij], whose elements are given by:
(i)aij=(i + j)2/2

Question 4. Construct a 2 × 2 matrix, A = [aij], whose elements are given by:
(ii)aij=i/j

Question 4. Construct a 2 × 2 matrix, A = [aij], whose elements are given by:
(iii)aij=(i + 2j)2/2

Question 5. Construct a 3 × 4 matrix, whose elements are given by:
(i)aij=1/2| -3i + j |

Question 5. Construct a 3 × 4 matrix, whose elements are given by:
(ii)aij=2i - j

Question 6. Find the values of x, y and z from the following equations:

(i)

Question 6. Find the values of x, y and z from the following equations:

(ii)

Question 6. Find the values of x, y and z from the following equations:

(iii)

Question 7. Find the value of a, b, c and d from the equation

Question 8 .is a square matrix, if
(A) m < n (B) m > n (C) m = n (D) None of these

Question 9.Which of the given values of x and y make the following pair of matrices equal

Question 10. The number of all possible matrices of order 3 × 3 with each entry 0 or 1 is:

EXERCISE

=Question 1. Let Find each of the following:
(i) A + B (ii) A – B (iii) 3A – C

=Question 1. Let Find each of the following:
(iv) AB (v) BA

=Question 2. Compute the following:

=Question 3. Compute the indicated products.

=Question 4. If , then compute (A+B) and (B – C). Also, verify that A + (B – C) = (A + B) – C.

=Question 5. If , then compute 3A – 5B.

=Question 6. Simplify

:: Chapter 4 - Determinants ::

Exercise

Question 1. Evaluate the determinants in Exercises 1 and 2.

Question 2. Evaluate the determinants in Exercises 1 and 2.

Question 3. If , then show that | 2A | = 4 | A |

Question 4. If , then show that | 3 A | = 27 | A |

Question 5. Evaluate the determinants

Question 6. If , find | A |

Question 7. Find values of x, if

Question 8. If , then x is equal to

Exercise

Using the property of determinants and without expanding in Exercises 1 to 7, prove That

Using the property of determinants and without expanding in Exercises 1 to 7, prove That

Using the property of determinants and without expanding in Exercises 1 to 7, prove That

Using the property of determinants and without expanding in Exercises 1 to 7, prove That

Using the property of determinants and without expanding in Exercises 1 to 7, prove That

By using properties of determinants, in Exercises 8 to 14, show that:

Question 15.Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then | kA| is equal to

(A) k| A|
(B) k2 | A|
(C) k3 | A|
(D) 3k | A |

Question 16. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Determinant is a square matrix.
(B) Determinant is a number associated to a matrix.
(C) Determinant is a number associated to a square matrix.
(D) None of these

Exercise

Question 1. Find area of the triangle with vertices at the point given in each of the following :

(i) (1, 0), (6, 0), (4, 3)
(ii) (2, 7), (1, 1), (10, 8)
(iii) (–2, –3), (3, 2), (–1, –8)

Question 2. Show that points A (a, b + c), B (b, c + a), C (c, a + b) are collinear.

Question 3. Find values of k if area of triangle is 4 sq. units and vertices are
(i) (k, 0), (4, 0), (0, 2)
(ii) (–2, 0), (0, 4), (0, k)

Question 4.
(i) Find equation of line joining (1, 2) and (3, 6) using determinants.
(ii) Find equation of line joining (3, 1) and (9, 3) using determinants.

Question 5. If area of triangle is 35 sq units with vertices (2, – 6), (5, 4) and (k, 4). Then k is

(A) 12 (B) –2 (C) –12, –2 (D) 12, –2

Exercise

Write Minors and Cofactors of the elements of following determinants:

Exercise

=Find adjoint of each of the matrices in Exercises 1 and 2.

=Verify A (adj A) = (adj A) A = |A| I in Exercises 3 and 4

=Find the inverse of each of the matrices (if it exists) given in Exercises 5 to 11.

17. Let A be a nonsingular square matrix of order 3 × 3. Then |adj A| is equal to

(A) |A|
(B) |A|2
(C) |A|3
(D) 3|A|

18. If A is an invertible matrix of order 2, then det (A–1) is equal to

(A) det
(A) (B)1/det (A)
(C) 1
(D) 0

Exercise

Question 1. x + 2y = 2 and 2x + 3y = 3

Question 2. 2x – y = 5 and x + y = 4

Question 3. x + 3y = 5 and 2x + 6y = 8

Question 4. x + y + z = 1 , 2x + 3y + 2z = 2 and ax + ay + 2az = 4

Question 3x–y – 2z = 2, 2y – z =-1 and –3x – 5y = 3

Question 6. 5x – y + 4z = 5,2x + 3y + 5z = 2 and 5x – 2y + 6z = –1

Solve system of linear equations, using matrix method, in Exercises 7 to 14.

Question 7. 5x + 2y = 4 and 7x + 3y = 5

Question 8. 2x – y = –2 and 3x + 4y = 3

Question 9. 4x – 3y = 3 and 3x – 5y = 7

Question 10. 5x + 2y = 3 and 3x + 2y = 5

Question 11. 2x + y + z = 1, x – 2y – z =3/2 and 3y – 5z = 9

Question 12. x – y + z = 4, 2x + y – 3z = 0 and x + y + z = 2

Question 13. 2x + 3y +3 z = 5, x – 2y + z = – 4 and 3x – y – 2z = 3

Question 14. x – y + 2z = 7,3x + 4y – 5z = – 5 and 2x – y + 3z = 12

Question 15. If , find A–1. Using A–1 solve the system of equations 2x – 3y + 5z = 11 3x + 2y – 4z = – 5 x + y – 2z = – 3

Question 16. The cost of 4 kg onion, 3 kg wheat and 2 kg rice is Rs 60. The cost of 2 kg onion, 4 kg wheat and 6 kg rice is Rs 90. The cost of 6 kg onion 2 kg wheat and 3 kg rice is Rs 70. Find cost of each item per kg by matrix method.

:: Chapter 6 - Application of Derivatives ::

EXERCISE

Question 1. Find the rate of change of the area of a circle with respect to its radius r when (a) r = 3 cm (b) r = 4 cm

Question 2. The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 8 cm3/s. How fast is the surface area increasing when the length of an edge is 12 cm?

Question 3. The radius of a circle is increasing uniformly at the rate of 3 cm/s. Find the rate at which the area of the circle is increasing when the radius is 10 cm.

Question 4. An edge of a variable cube is increasing at the rate of 3 cm/s. How fast is the volume of the cube increasing when the edge is 10 cm long?

Question 5. A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles at the speed of 5 cm/s. At the instant when the radius of the circular wave is 8 cm, how fast is the enclosed area increasing? 6. The radius of a circle is increasing at the rate of 0.7 cm/s. What is the rate of increase of its circumference?

Question 7. The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 5 cm/minute and the width y is increasing at the rate of 4 cm/minute. When x = 8cm and y = 6cm, find the rates of change of (a) the perimeter, and (b) the area of the rectangle.

Question 8. A balloon, which always remains spherical on inflation, is being inflated by pumping in 900 cubic centimetres of gas per second. Find the rate at which the radius of the balloon increases when the radius is 15 cm.

Question 9. A balloon, which always remains spherical has a variable radius. Find the rate at which its volume is increasing with the radius when the later is 10 cm. 10. A ladder 5 m long is leaning against a wall. The bottom of the ladder is pulled along the ground, away from the wall, at the rate of 2cm/s. How fast is its height on the wall decreasing when the foot of the ladder is 4 m away from the wall

Question 11. A particle moves along the curve 6y = x3 +2. Find the points on the curve at which the y-coordinate is changing 8 times as fast as the x-coordinate.

Question 12. The radius of an air bubble is increasing at the rate of 1 2 cm/s. At what rate is the volume of the bubble increasing when the radius is 1 cm?

Question 13. A balloon, which always remains spherical, has a variable diameter 3 (2 1) 2 x + . Find the rate of change of its volume with respect to x.

Question 14. Sand is pouring from a pipe at the rate of 12 cm3/s. The falling sand forms a cone on the ground in such a way that the height of the cone is always one-sixth of the radius of the base. How fast is the height of the sand cone increasing when the height is 4 cm?

Question 15. The total cost C(x) in Rupees associated with the production of x units of an item is given by C(x) = 0.007x3 – 0.003x2 + 15x + 4000. Find the marginal cost when 17 units are produced.

Question 16. The total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is given by R(x) = 13x2 + 26x + 15. Find the marginal revenue when x = 7.

Question 17. The rate of change of the area of a circle with respect to its radius r at r = 6 cm is

(A) 10π
(B) 12π
(C) 8π
(D) 11π

Question 18. The total revenue in Rupees received from the sale of x units of a product is given by R(x) = 3x2 + 36x + 5. The marginal revenue, when x = 15 is

(A) 116
(B) 96
(C) 90
(D) 126

EXERCISE

Question 1. Show that the function given by f (x) = 3x + 17 is strictly increasing on R.

Question 2. Show that the function given by f (x) = e2x is strictly increasing on R.

Question 3. Show that the function given by f (x) = sin x is (a) strictly increasing in 0, 2 (b) strictly decreasing in , 2 (c) neither increasing nor decreasing in (0, π)

Question 4. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f (x) = 2x2 – 3x is (a) strictly increasing (b) strictly decreasing

Question 5. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f (x) = 2x3 – 3x2 – 36x + 7 is (a) strictly increasing (b) strictly decreasing

Question 6. Find the intervals in which the following functions are strictly increasing or decreasing:

(a) x2 + 2x – 5
(b) 10 – 6x – 2x2
(c) –2x3 – 9x2 – 12x + 1
(d) 6 – 9x – x2
(e) (x + 1)3 (x – 3)3

Question 7. Show that log(1 ) 2 2 y x x x = + −+ , x > – 1, is an increasing function of x throughout its domain.

Question 8. Find the values of x for which y = [x(x – 2)]2 is an increasing function.

Question 9. Prove that 4sin (2 cos ) y θ = −θ + θ is an increasing function of θ in 0, 2

Question 10. Prove that the logarithmic function is strictly increasing on (0, ∞).

Question 11. Prove that the function f given by f (x) = x2 – x + 1 is neither strictly increasing nor strictly decreasing on (– 1, 1)

Question 12. Which of the following functions are strictly decreasing on 0, 2?

(A) cos x
(B) cos 2x
(C) cos 3x
(D) tan x

Question 13. On which of the following intervals is the function f given by f (x) = x100 + sin x –1 strictly decreasing ? (A) (0,1) (B) , 2 (D) None of these

Question 14. Find the least value of a such that the function f given by f (x) = x2 + ax + 1 is strictly increasing on (1, 2).

Question 15. Let I be any interval disjoint from (–1, 1). Prove that the function f given by f (x) x 1 x = + is strictly increasing on I.

Question 16. Prove that the function f given by f (x) = log sin x is strictly increasing on 0, 2and strictly decreasing on .

Question 17. Prove that the function f given by f (x) = log cos x is strictly decreasing on 0, 2 ⎠ and strictly increasing on , 2 .

Question 18. Prove that the function given by f (x) = x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 100 is increasing in R.

Question 19. The interval in which y = x2 e–x is increasing is

(A) (– ∞, ∞)
(B) (– 2, 0)
(C) (2, ∞)
(D) (0, 2)

EXERCISE

Question 1. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve y = 3x4 – 4x at x = 4.

Question 2. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve 1, 2 2 y x x x − = ≠ − at x = 10.

Question 3. Find the slope of the tangent to curve y = x3 – x + 1 at the point whose x-coordinate is 2.

Question 4. Find the slope of the tangent to the curve y = x3 –3x + 2 at the point whose x-coordinate is 3.

Question 5. Find the slope of the normal to the curve x = acos3 θ, y = asin3 θ at . 4 π θ =

Question 6. Find the slope of the normal to the curve x = 1− asinθ, y = bcos2 θ at . 2 π θ =

Question 7. Find points at which the tangent to the curve y = x3 – 3x2 – 9x + 7 is parallel to the x-axis.

Question 8. Find a point on the curve y = (x – 2)2 at which the tangent is parallel to the chord joining the points (2, 0) and (4, 4).

Question 9. Find the point on the curve y = x3 – 11x + 5 at which the tangent is y = x – 11.

Question 10. Find the equation of all lines having slope – 1 that are tangents to the curve 1 1 y x = − , x ≠ 1.

Question 11. Find the equation of all lines having slope 2 which are tangents to the curve 1 3 y x = − , x ≠ 3.

Question 12. Find the equations of all lines having slope 0 which are tangent to the curve 2 1 . 2 3 y x x = − +

Question 13. Find points on the curve 2 2 1 9 16 x + y = at which the tangents are (i) parallel to x-axis (ii) parallel to y-axis.

Question 14. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the given curves at the indicated points:

(i) y = x4 – 6x3 + 13x2 – 10x + 5 at (0, 5)
(ii) y = x4 – 6x3 + 13x2 – 10x + 5 at (1, 3)
(iii) y = x3 at (1, 1)
(iv) y = x2 at (0, 0)
(v) x = cos t, y = sin t at 4 t π =1

Question 15. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y = x2 – 2x +7 which is (a) parallel to the line 2x – y + 9 = 0 (b) perpendicular to the line 5y – 15x = 13.

Question 16. Show that the tangents to the curve y = 7x3 + 11 at the points where x = 2 and x = – 2 are parallel.

Question 17. Find the points on the curve y = x3 at which the slope of the tangent is equal to the y-coordinate of the point.

Question 18. For the curve y = 4x3 – 2x5, find all the points at which the tangent passes through the origin.

Question 19. Find the points on the curve x2 + y2 – 2x – 3 = 0 at which the tangents are parallel to the x-axis.

Question 20. Find the equation of the normal at the point (am2,am3) for the curve ay2 = x3.

Question 21. Find the equation of the normals to the curve y = x3 + 2x + 6 which are parallel to the line x + 14y + 4 = 0.

Question 22. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the parabola y2 = 4ax at the point (at2, 2at).

Question 23. Prove that the curves x = y2 and xy = k cut at right angles* if 8k2 = 1.

Question 24. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the hyperbola 2 2 2 2 1 x y a b − = at the point (x0, y0).

Question 25. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve y = 3x − 2 which is parallel to the line 4x − 2y + 5 = 0 . Choose the correct answer in Exercises 26 and 27.

Question 26. The slope of the normal to the curve y = 2x2 + 3 sin x at x = 0 is

(A) 3
(B) 1 3
(C) –3
(D) 1 3 −

Question 27. The line y = x + 1 is a tangent to the curve y2 = 4x at the point

(A) (1, 2)
(B) (2, 1)
(C) (1, – 2)
(D) (– 1, 2)

EXERCISE

Question 1. Using differentials, find the approximate value of each of the following up to 3 places of decimal.

(i) 25.3
(ii) 49.5
(iii) 0.6
(iv) 1 (0.009)3
(v) 1 (0.999)10
(vi) 1 (15)4
(vii) 1 (26)3
(viii) 1 (255)4
(ix) 1 (82)4
(x) 1 (401)2
(xi) 1 (0.0037)2
(xii) 1 (26.57)3
(xiii) 1 (81.5)4
(xiv) 3 (3.968)2
(xv) 1 (32.15)5

Question 2. Find the approximate value of f (2.01), where f (x) = 4x2 + 5x + 2.

Question 3. Find the approximate value of f (5.001), where f (x) = x3 – 7x2 + 15.

Question 4. Find the approximate change in the volume V of a cube of side x metres caused by increasing the side by 1%.

Question 5. Find the approximate change in the surface area of a cube of side x metres caused by decreasing the side by 1%.

Question 6. If the radius of a sphere is measured as 7 m with an error of 0.02 m, then find the approximate error in calculating its volume.

Question 7. If the radius of a sphere is measured as 9 m with an error of 0.03 m, then find the approximate error in calculating its surface area.

Question 8. If f(x) = 3x2 + 15x + 5, then the approximate value of f (3.02) is (A) 47.66 (B) 57.66 (C) 67.66 (D) 77.66 9. The approximate change in the volume of a cube of side x metres caused by increasing the side by 3% is

(A) 0.06 x3 m3
(B) 0.6 x3 m3
(C) 0.09 x3 m3
(D) 0.9 x3 m3

EXERCISE

Question 1. Find the maximum and minimum values, if any, of the following functions given by

(i) f
(x) = (2x – 1)2 + 3
(ii) f (x) = 9x2 + 12x + 2
(iii) f
(x) = –
(x – 1)2 + 10
(iv) g
(x) = x3 +

Question 1. It is given that at x = 1, the function x4 – 62x2 + ax + 9 attains its maximum value, on the interval [0, 2]. Find the value of a.

Question 2. Find the maximum and minimum values of x + sin 2x on [0, 2π].

Question 3. Find two numbers whose sum is 24 and whose product is as large as possible.

Question 4. Find two positive numbers x and y such that x + y = 60 and xy3 is maximum.

Question 5. Find two positive numbers x and y such that their sum is 35 and the product x2 y5 is a maximum.

Question 6. Find two positive numbers whose sum is 16 and the sum of whose cubes is minimum.

Question 7. A square piece of tin of side 18 cm is to be made into a box without top, by cutting a square from each corner and folding up the flaps to form the box. What should be the side of the square to be cut off so that the volume of the box is the maximum possible.

Question 8. A rectangular sheet of tin 45 cm by 24 cm is to be made into a box without top, by cutting off square from each corner and folding up the flaps. What should be the side of the square to be cut off so that the volume of the box is maximum ?

Question 9. Show that of all the rectangles inscribed in a given fixed circle, the square has the maximum area.

Question 10. Show that the right circular cylinder of given surface and maximum volume is such that its height is equal to the diameter of the base.

Question 11. Of all the closed cylindrical cans (right circular), of a given volume of 100 cubic centimetres, find the dimensions of the can which has the minimum surface area?

Question 12. A wire of length 28 m is to be cut into two pieces. One of the pieces is to be made into a square and the other into a circle. What should be the length of the two pieces so that the combined area of the square and the circle is minimum?

Question 13. Prove that the volume of the largest cone that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R is 8 27 of the volume of the sphere.

Question 14. Show that the right circular cone of least curved surface and given volume has an altitude equal to 2 time the radius of the base.

Question 15. Show that the semi-vertical angle of the cone of the maximum volume and of given slant height is tan−1 2 .

Question 16. Show that semi-vertical angle of right circular cone of given surface area and maximum volume is sin 1 1

Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 6

Question 1. Using differentials, find the approximate value of each of the following: (a) 1 17 4 81 (b) ( ) 1 33 5 −

Question 2. Show that the function given by f (x) log x x = has maximum at x = e.

Question 3. The two equal sides of an isosceles triangle with fixed base b are decreasing at the rate of 3 cm per second. How fast is the area decreasing when the two equal sides are equal to the base

Question 4. Find the equation of the normal to curve x2 = 4y which passes through the point (1, 2).

Question 5. Show that the normal at any point θ to the curve x = a cosθ + a θ sin θ, y = a sinθ – aθ cosθ is at a constant distance from the origin.

Question 6. Find the intervals in which the function f given by ( ) 4sin 2 cos 2 cos f x x x x x x − − = + is

(i) increasing
(ii) decreasing.

Question 7. Find the intervals in which the function f given by 3 3 f (x) x 1 , x 0 x = + ≠ is

(i) increasing
(ii) decreasing.

Question 8. Find the maximum area of an isosceles triangle inscribed in the ellipse 2 2 2 2 1 x y a b + = with its vertex at one end of the major axis.

Question 9. A tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open at the top is to be constructed so that its depth is 2 m and volume is 8 m3. If building of tank costs Rs 70 per sq metres for the base and Rs 45 per square metre for sides. What is the cost of least expensive tank?

Question 10. The sum of the perimeter of a circle and square is k, where k is some constant. Prove that the sum of their areas is least when the side of square is double the radius of the circle.

Question 11. A window is in the form of a rectangle surmounted by a semicircular opening. The total perimeter of the window is

Question 12. m. Find the dimensions of the window to admit maximum light through the whole opening.

Question 13. A point on the hypotenuse of a triangle is at distance a and b from the sides of the triangle. Show that the maximum length of the hypotenuse is 2 2 3 (a3 + b3 )2 .

Question 14. Find the points at which the function f given by f (x) = (x – 2)4 (x + 1)3 has

(i) local maxima
(ii) local minima
(iii) point of inflexion

14. Find the absolute maximum and minimum values of the function f given by f (x) = cos2 x + sin x, x ∈ [0, π]

Question 15. Show that the altitude of the right circular cone of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius r is 4 3 r .

Question 16. Let f be a function defined on [a, b] such that f ′(x) > 0, for all x ∈ (a, b). Then prove that f is an increasing function on (a, b).

Question 17. Show that the height of the cylinder of maximum volume that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R is 2R 3 . Also find the maximum volume.

Question 18. Show that height of the cylinder of greatest volume which can be inscribed in a right circular cone of height h and semi vertical angle α is one-third that of the cone and the greatest volume of cylinder is 4 3 tan2 27 πh α . Choose the correct answer in the Exercises from 19 to 24.

Question 19. A cylindrical tank of radius 10 m is being filled with wheat at the rate of 314 cubic metre per hour. Then the depth of the wheat is increasing at the rate of

(A) 1 m3/h
(B) 0.1 m3/h
(C) 1.1 m3/h
(D) 0.5 m3/h

Question 20. The slope of the tangent to the curve x = t2 + 3t – 8, y = 2t2 – 2t – 5 at the point (2,– 1) is

(A) 22 7
(B) 6 7
(C) 7 6
(D) 6 7

Question 21. The line y = mx + 1 is a tangent to the curve y2 = 4x if the value of m is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1 2

Question 22. The normal at the point (1,1) on the curve 2y + x2 = 3 is

(A) x + y = 0
(B) x – y = 0
(C) x + y +1 = 0
(D) x – y = 0

Question 23. The normal to the curve x2 = 4y passing (1,2) is

(A) x + y = 3
(B) x – y = 3
(C) x + y = 1
( D) x – y = 1

Question 24. The points on the curve 9y2 = x3, where the normal to the curve makes equal intercepts with the axes are

(A) 4, 8 3
(B) 4, 8 3
(C) 4, 3 8
(D) 4, 3 8

:: Chapter 7 - Integral ::

EXERCISE

Question 1. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y2 = x and the lines x = 1, x = 4 and the x-axis.

Question 2. Find the area of the region bounded by y2 = 9x, x = 2, x = 4 and the x-axis in the first quadrant. Fig

Question 3. Find the area of the region bounded by x2 = 4y, y = 2, y = 4 and the y-axis in the first quadrant.

Question 4. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse 2 2 1 16 9 x y + = .

Question 5. Find the area of the region bounded by the ellipse 2 2 1 4 9 x y + = .

Question 6. Find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by x-axis, line x = 3 y and the circle x2 + y2 = 4.

Question 7. Find the area of the smaller part of the circle x2 + y2 = a2 cut off by the line 2 x= a .

Question 8. The area between x = y2 and x = 4 is divided into two equal parts by the line x = a, find the value of a.

Question 9. Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y = x2 and y = x .

Question 10. Find the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y and the line x = 4y – 2.

Question 11. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y2 = 4x and the line x = 3. Choose the correct answer in the following Exercises 12 and 13.

Question 12. Area lying in the first quadrant and bounded by the circle x2 + y2 = 4 and the lines x = 0 and x = 2 is

(A) π
(B) 2 π
(C) 3 π
(D) 4 π

Question 13. Area of the region bounded by the curve y2 = 4x, y-axis and the line y = 3 is

(A) 2
(B) 9 4
(C) 9 3
(D) 9 2

EXERCISE

Question 1. Find the area of the circle 4x2 + 4y2 = 9 which is interior to the parabola x2 = 4y.

Question 2. Find the area bounded by curves (x – 1)2 + y2 = 1 and x2 + y2 = 1.

Question 3. Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2 + 2, y = x, x = 0 and x = 3.

Question 4. Using integration find the area of region bounded by the triangle whose vertices are (– 1, 0), (1, 3) and (3, 2).

Question 5. Using integration find the area of the triangular region whose sides have the equations y = 2x + 1, y = 3x + 1 and x =

Question 4.Choose the correct answer in the following exercises 6 and 7.

Question 6. Smaller area enclosed by the circle x2 + y2 = 4 and the line x + y = 2 is

(A) 2 (π – 2)
(B) π – 2
(C) 2π – 1
(D) 2 (π + 2)

Question 7. Area lying between the curves y2 = 4x and y = 2x is

(A) 2 3
(B) 1 3
(C) 1 4
(D) 3 4

Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter

Question 1. Find the area under the given curves and given lines:

(i) y = x2, x = 1, x = 2 and x-axis
(ii) y = x4, x = 1, x = 5 and x-axis

Question 2. Find the area between the curves y = x and y = x2.

Question 3. Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant and bounded by y = 4x2, x = 0, y = 1 and y = 4.

Question 4. Sketch the graph of y = x + 3 and evaluate 0 6 3 − ∫ x + dx .

Question 5. Find the area bounded by the curve y = sin x between x = 0 and x = 2π.

Question 6. Find the area enclosed between the parabola y2 = 4ax and the line y = mx.

Question 7. Find the area enclosed by the parabola 4y = 3x2 and the line 2y = 3x + 12.

Question 8. Find the area of the smaller region bounded by the ellipse 2 2 1 9 4 x + y = and the line 1 3 2 x y + = .

Question 9. Find the area of the smaller region bounded by the ellipse 2 2 2 2 x y 1 a b + = and the line 1 x y a b + = .

Question 10. Find the area of the region enclosed by the parabola x2 = y, the line y = x + 2 and the x-axis.

Question 11. Using the method of integration find the area bounded by the curve x + y = 1 . [Hint: The required region is bounded by lines x + y = 1, x– y = 1, – x + y = 1 and – x – y = 1].

Question 12. Find the area bounded by curves {(x, y) : y ≥ x2 and y = | x |}.

Question 13. Using the method of integration find the area of the triangle ABC, coordinates of whose vertices are A(2, 0), B (4, 5) and C (6, 3).

Question 14. Using the method of integration find the area of the region bounded by lines: 2x + y = 4, 3x – 2y = 6 and x – 3y + 5 = 0

Question 15. Find the area of the region {(x, y) : y2 ≤ 4x, 4x2 + 4y2 ≤ 9} Choose the correct answer in the following Exercises from 16 to 20.

Question 16. Area bounded by the curve y = x3, the x-axis and the ordinates x = – 2 and x = 1 is

(A) – 9
(B) 15 4 −
(C) 15 4
(D) 17 4

Question 17. The area bounded by the curve y = x | x | , x-axis and the ordinates x = – 1 and x = 1 is given by

(A) 0
(B) 1 3
(C) 2 3
(D) 4 3 [Hint : y = x2 if x > 0 and y = – x2 if x < 0].

Question 18. The area of the circle x2 + y2 = 16 exterior to the parabola y2 = 6x is

(A) 4 (4 3) 3 π −
(B) 4 (4 3) 3 π +
(C) 4 (8 3) 3 π −
(D) 4 (8 3) 3 π +

Question 19. The area bounded by the y-axis, y = cos x and y = sin x when 0 2 x π ≤ ≤ is

(A) 2 ( 2 −1)
(B) 2 −1
(C) 2 +1
(D) 2

:: Chapter 8 - Application Of Integrals ::

EXERCISE

1. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y^2 =x and the lines x = 1 , x = 4 and the x axis

2.Find the area of the region bounded by y^2 = 9x, x=2, x =4 and the x axis in the first quadrant.

3. Find the area of the region bounded by x^2 = 4y, y = 2, y = 4 and the y-axis in the first quadrant.

Find the equation of the region bounded by the ellipse x^2/16 + y^2/9 =1

Find the equation of the region bounded by the ellipse x^2/4 + y^2/9 =1

6. find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by x axis, line x =root 3 y and the circle x^2 + y^2 = 4

7.Area between x=y2 and x=4 is divided in two equal parts by the line x = a, find the value of a

8. The area between x^2 = y and x = 4 is divided into two equal parts by the line x = a, find the value of a.

9. Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y = x^2 and y= |x|\

10. Find the area bounded by the curve x^2 =4y and the line x = 4y- 2

11. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y2 = 4x and the line x = 3.

12. Area lying in the first quadrant and bounded by the circle x2 + y = 4 and the lines x = 0 and x = 2 is 2

13. Area of the region bounded by the curve y^2 =4x , y axis and the line y=3 is

EXERCISE

1. Find the area of the circle 4x^2 + 4y^2 = 9 which is interior to the parabola x^2 =4y

2. Find the area bounded by curves (x – 1)^2 + y^2 = 1 and x^2 + y^2 = 1

3.Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y= x^2 + 2 , y=x , x =0 and x = 3

4.Using integration find the area of region bounded by the triangle whose vertices are (– 1, 0), (1, 3) and (3, 2).

5. Using integration find the area of the triangular region whose sides have the equations y = 2x + 1, y = 3x + 1 and x = 4.

6. Smaller area enclosed by the circle x^2 +y^2 = 4 and the lines x + y = 2 is (A) 2 (π – 2) (B) π – 2 (C) 2π – 1 (D) 2 (π + 2)

7. Area lying between the curves y^2 = 4x and y = 2x is

Miscellaneous Solutions

1. Find the area under the given curves and given lines (i) y = x^2 , x=1 , x= 2 and x axis (ii) y = x^4 , x=1 , x= 5 and x axis

2. Find the area between the curves y = x and y = x^2

3.Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant and bounded by y = 4x^2, x=0, y=1 and y= 4

4. Sketch the graph of y = x + 3 and evaluate integration limits 6 to 0 of x + 3 dx

5. Find the area bounded by the curve y = sin x between x = 0 and x = 2π.

6. Find the area enclosed between the parabola y^2 = 4ax and the line y =mx

7. Find the area enclosed by the parabola 4y = 3x^2 and the line 2y = 3x + 12 using integration to find area,

8. Find the area of the smaller region bounded by the ellipse x^2/9 + y^2/4 = 1 and the line x/3 + y/2 =1

:: Chapter 9 - Differential Equations ::

EXERCISE 9.2

In each of the Exercises 1 to 10 verify that the given functions (explicit or implicit) is a solution of the corresponding differential equation:

Question 1. y = ex + 1 : y″ – y′ = 0

Question 2. y = x² + 2x + C : y′ – 2x – 2 = 0

Question 3. y = cos x + C : y′ + sin x = 0

Question 4. y = 1+ x² : y′ = 1 2 xy + x

Question 5. y = Ax : xy′ = y (x ≠ 0)

Question 6. y = x sin x : xy′ = y + x x² − y² (x ≠ 0 and x > y or x < – y)

Question 7. xy = log y + C : y′ = 2 1 y − xy (xy ≠ 1)

Question 8. y – cos y = x : (y sin y + cos y + x) y′ = y

Question 9. x + y = tan–1y : y² y′ + y² + 1 = 0

Question 10. y = a²

− x2 x ∈ (–a, a) : x + y dy dx = 0 (y ≠ 0)

Question 11. The number of arbitrary constants in the general solution of a differential equation of fourth order are:

(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Question 12. The number of arbitrary constants in the particular solution of a differential equation of third order are:

(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 0

EXERCISE 9.3

In each of the Exercises 1 to 5, form a differential equation representing the given family of curves by eliminating arbitrary constants a and b.

Question 1. x y 1 a b + =

Question 2. y² = a (b² – x²)

Question 3. y = a e3x + b e– 2x

Question 4. y = e²x (a + bx)

Question 5. y = ex (a cos x + b sin x)

Question 6. Form the differential equation of the family of circles touching the y-axis at origin.

Question 7. Form the differential equation of the family of parabolas having vertex at origin and axis along positive y-axis.

Question 8. Form the differential equation of the family of ellipses having foci on y-axis and centre at origin.

Question 9. Form the differential equation of the family of hyperbolas having foci on x-axis and centre at origin.

Question 10. Form the differential equation of the family of circles having centre on y-axis and radius 3 units.

Question 11. Which of the following differential equations has y = c1 ex + c2 e–x as the general solution?
(A) 2 2 d y y 0 dx + =
(B) 2 2 d y y 0 dx − =
(C) 2 2 d y 1 0 dx + =
(D) 2 2 d y 1 0 dx − =

Question 12. Which of the following differential equations has y = x as one of its particular solution?
(A) 2 2 2 d y x dy xy x dx dx − + =
(B) 2 2 d y x dy xy x dx dx + + =
(C) 2 2 2 d y x dy xy 0 dx dx − + =
(D) 2 2 d y x dy xy 0 dx dx |

EXERCISE 9.4

EXERCISE 9.3

Question 17. Find the equation of a curve passing through the point (0, –2) given that at any point (x, y) on the curve, the product of the slope of its tangent and y coordinate of the point is equal to the x coordinate of the point.

Question 18. At any point (x, y) of a curve, the slope of the tangent is twice the slope of the line segment joining the point of contact to the point (– 4, –3). Find the equation of the curve given that it passes through (–2, 1).

Question 19. The volume of spherical balloon being inflated changes at a constant rate. If initially its radius is 3 units and after 3 seconds it is 6 units. Find the radius of balloon after t seconds.

Question 20. In a bank, principal increases continuously at the rate of r% per year. Find the value of r if Rs 100 double itself in 10 years (loge2 = 0.6931).

Question 21. In a bank, principal increases continuously at the rate of 5% per year. An amount of Rs 1000 is deposited with this bank, how much will it worth after 10 years (e0.5 = 1.648).

Question 22. In a culture, the bacteria count is 1,00,000. The number is increased by 10% in 2 hours. In how many hours will the count reach 2,00,000, if the rate of growth of bacteria is proportional to the number present?

Question 23. The general solution of the differential equation dy ex y dx = + is (A) ex + e–y = C (B) ex + ey = C (C) e–x + ey = C (D) e–x + e–y = C

Question 16. A homogeneous differential equation of the from dx h x dy y = can be solved by making the substitution.
(A) y = vx
(B) v = yx
(C) x = vy
(D) x = v

Question 17. Which of the following is a homogeneous differential equation?
(A) (4x + 6y + 5) dy – (3y + 2x + 4) dx = 0
(B) (xy) dx – (x3 + y3) dy = 0
(C) (x3 + 2y2) dx + 2xy dy = 0
(D) y2 dx + (x2 – xy – y2) dy = 0

Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 9

Question 1. For each of the differential equations given below, indicate its order and degree (if defined).
(i) 2 2 2 d y 5x dy 6y log x dx dx +
(ii) 3 2 dy 4 dy 7 y sin x dx dx
(iii) 4 3 4 3 d y sin d y 0 dx dx

Question 2. For each of the exercises given below, verify that the given function (implicit or explicit) is a solution of the corresponding differential equation.
(i) y = a ex + b e–x + x2 : 2 2 2 x d y 2 dy xy x 2 0 dx dx + − + − =
(ii) y = ex (a cos x + b sin x) : 2 2 d y 2 dy 2y 0 dx dx − + =
(iii) y = x sin 3x : 2 2 d y 9y 6cos3x 0 dx + − =
(iv) x2 = 2y2 log y : (x2 y2 ) dy xy 0 dx + − =

Question 3. Form the differential equation representing the family of curves given by (x – a)2 + 2y2 = a2, where a is an arbitrary constant.

Question 4. Prove that x2 – y2 = c (x2 + y2)2 is the general solution of differential equation (x3 – 3x y2) dx = (y3 – 3x2y) dy, where c is a parameter.

Question 5. Form the differential equation of the family of circles in the first quadrant which touch the coordinate axes.

Question 6. Find the general solution of the differential equation 2 2 1 0 1 dy y dx x − + = − .

Question 7. Show that the general solution of the differential equation 2 2 1 0 1 dy y y dx x x + + + = + + is given by (x + y + 1) = A (1 – x – y – 2xy), where A is parameter.

Question 8. Find the equation of the curve passing through the point 0, 4 whose differential equation is sin x cos y dx + cos x sin y dy = 0.

Question 9. Find the particular solution of the differential equation (1 + e2x) dy + (1 + y2) ex dx = 0, given that y = 1 when x = 0.

Question 10. Solve the differential equation 2 ( 0) x x y e ydx x e y y dy y ≠ .

Question 11. Find a particular solution of the differential equation (x – y) (dx + dy) = dx – dy, given that y = –1, when x = 0. (Hint: put x – y = t)

Question 12. Solve the differential equation 2 1( 0) x e y dxx x x dy.

Question 13. Find a particular solution of the differential equation cot dy y x dx + = 4x cosec x (x ≠ 0), given that y = 0 when 2 x π = .

Question 14. Find a particular solution of the differential equation (x + 1) dy dx = 2 e–y – 1, given that y = 0 when x = 0.

Question 15. The population of a village increases continuously at the rate proportional to the number of its inhabitants present at any time. If the population of the village was 20, 000 in 1999 and 25000 in the year 2004, what will be the population of the village in 2009?

Question 16. The general solution of the differential equation y dx x dy 0 y − = is
(A) xy = C
(B) x = Cy2
(C) y = Cx
(D) y = Cx2

Question 17. The general solution of a differential equation of the type P1 Q1 dx x dy + = is
(A) P1 ( P1 ) Q1 C dy dy y e∫ = ∫ e∫ dy +
(B) P1 ( P1 ) . Q1 C dx dx y e∫ = ∫ e∫ dx +
(C) P1 ( P1 ) Q1 C dy dy x e∫ = ∫ e∫ dy +
(D) P1 ( P1 ) Q1 C dx dx x e∫ = ∫ e∫ dx +

Question 18. The general solution of the differential equation ex dy + (y ex + 2x) dx = 0 is
(A) x ey + x2 = C
(B) x ey + y2 = C
(C) y ex + x2 = C
(D) y ey + x2 = C

:: Chapter 10 - Vector Algebra ::

Question 1. Represent graphically a displacement of 40 km, 30° east of north.

Question 2. Classify the following measures as scalars and vectors.
(i) 10 kg
(ii) 2 meters north-west
(iii) 40° (iv) 40 watt
(v) 10–19 coulomb
(vi) 20 m/s2

Question 3. Classify the following as scalar and vector quantities.
(i) time period
(ii) distance
(iii) force
(iv) velocity
(v) work done

Question 4. In Fig 10.6 (a square), identify the following vectors.
(i) Coinitial
(ii) Equal
(iii) Collinear but not equal

Question 5. Answer the following as true or false.
(i) a and −a are collin ear.
(ii) Two collinear vectors are always equal in magnitude.
(iii) Two vectors having same magnitude are collinear.
(iv) Two collinear vectors having the same magnitude are equal.

Question 2. Write two different vectors having same magnitude.

Question 3. Write two different vectors having same direction.

Question 4. Find the values of x and y so that the vectors 2iˆ + 3 ˆj and xiˆ + yˆj are equal.

Question 5. Find the scalar and vector components of the vector with initial point (2, 1) and terminal point (– 5, 7).

Question 6. Find the sum of the vectors a = iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ, b = −2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 5kˆ and c� = iˆ − 6 ˆj – 7kˆ .

Question 7. Find the unit vector in the direction of the vector a = iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ .

Question 8. Find the unit vector in the direction of vector PQ, where P and Q are the points (1, 2, 3) and (4, 5, 6), respectively.

Question 9. For given vectors, a = 2iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ and b = −iˆ + ˆj − kˆ , find the unit vector in the direction of the vector a + b .

Question 10. Find a vector in the direction of vector 5iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ which has magnitude 8 units.

Question 11. Show that the vectors 2iˆ − 3 ˆj + 4kˆ and − 4iˆ + 6 ˆj − 8kˆ are collinear. 12. Find the direction cosines of the vector iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ .

Question 13. Find the direction cosines of the vector joining the points A(1, 2, –3) and B(–1, –2, 1), directed from A to B .

Question 14. Show that the vector iˆ + ˆj + kˆ is equally inclined to the axes OX, OY and OZ.

Question 15. Find the position vector of a point R which divides the line joining two points P and Q whose position vectors are iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ and – iˆ + ˆj + kˆ respectively, in the ratio 2 : 1
(i) internally
(ii) externally

:: Chapter 11 - Three Dimensional Geometry ::

EXERCISE 11.1

Question 1. If a line makes angles 90°, 135°, 45° with the x, y and z-axes respectively, find its direction cosines.

Question 2. Find the direction cosines of a line which makes equal angles with the coordinate axes.

Question 3. If a line has the direction ratios –18, 12, – 4, then what are its direction cosines ?

Question 4. Show that the points (2, 3, 4), (– 1, – 2, 1), (5, 8, 7) are collinear.

Question 5. Find the direction cosines of the sides of the triangle whose vertices are (3, 5, – 4), (– 1, 1, 2) and (– 5, – 5, – 2).

Question 2. Show that the line through the points (1, – 1, 2), (3, 4, – 2) is perpendicular to the line through the points (0, 3, 2) and (3, 5, 6).

Question 3. Show that the line through the points (4, 7, 8), (2, 3, 4) is parallel to the line through the points (– 1, – 2, 1), (1, 2, 5).

Question 4. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1, 2, 3) and is parallel to the vector 3 iˆ + 2 ˆj −2 kˆ .

Question 5. Find the equation of the line in vector and in cartesian form that passes through the point with position vector 2 iˆ− j + 4 kˆ and is in the direction iˆ + 2 ˆj − kˆ .

Question 9. Find the vector and the cartesian equations of the line that passes through the points (3, – 2, – 5), (3, – 2, 6).

Question 10. Find the angle between the following pairs of lines:

EXERCISE 11.3

Question 1. In each of the following cases, determine the direction cosines of the normal to the plane and the distance from the origin.
(a) z = 2
(b) x + y + z = 1
(c) 2x + 3y – z = 5
(d) 5y + 8 = 0

Question 2. Find the vector equation of a plane which is at a distance of 7 units from the origin and normal to the vector 3 iˆ + 5 ˆj − 6 kˆ.

Question 3. Find the Cartesian equation of the following planes:
(a) r (iˆ + ˆj − kˆ) = 2
(b) r (2iˆ +3 ˆj − 4kˆ) = 1
(c) r [(s − 2t) iˆ + (3 − t) ˆj +(2 s +t ) kˆ] = 15

Question 4. In the following cases, find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the origin.
(a) 2x + 3y + 4z – 12 = 0 (b) 3y + 4z – 6 = 0
(c) x + y + z = 1 (d) 5y + 8 = 0

Question 5. Find the vector and cartesian equations of the planes
(a) that passes through the point (1, 0, – 2) and the normal to the plane is iˆ + ˆj − kˆ.
(b) that passes through the point (1,4, 6) and the normal vector to the plane is iˆ−2 ˆj + kˆ.

Question 6. Find the equations of the planes that passes through three points.
(a) (1, 1, – 1), (6, 4, – 5), (– 4, – 2, 3)
(b) (1, 1, 0), (1, 2, 1), (– 2, 2, – 1)

Question 7. Find the intercepts cut off by the plane 2x + y – z = 5.

Question 8. Find the equation of the plane with intercept 3 on the y-axis and parallel to ZOX plane.

Question 9. Find the equation of the plane through the intersection of the planes 3x – y + 2z – 4 = 0 and x + y + z – 2 = 0 and the point (2, 2, 1).

Question 10. Find the vector equation of the plane passing through the intersection of the planes r .(2 iˆ + 2 ˆj − 3 kˆ ) = 7 , r .(2 iˆ + 5 ˆj + 3 kˆ ) = 9 and through the point (2, 1, 3).

Question 11. Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the planes x + y + z = 1 and 2x + 3y + 4z = 5 which is perpendicular to the plane x – y + z = 0.

Question 12. Find the angle between the planes whose vector equations are r (2 iˆ + 2 ˆj − 3 kˆ) = 5 and r (3 iˆ − 3 ˆj + 5 kˆ) = 3 .

Question 13. In the following cases, determine whether the given planes are parallel or perpendicular, and in case they are neither, find the angles between them.
(a) 7x + 5y + 6z + 30 = 0 and 3x – y – 10z + 4 = 0
(b) 2x + y + 3z – 2 = 0 and x – 2y + 5 = 0
(c) 2x – 2y + 4z + 5 = 0 and 3x – 3y + 6z – 1 = 0
(d) 2x – y + 3z – 1 = 0 and 2x – y + 3z + 3 = 0
(e) 4x + 8y + z – 8 = 0 and y + z – 4 = 0

Question 14. In the following cases, find the distance of each of the given points from the corresponding given plane.

Miscellaneous Exercise on Chapter 11

Question 1. Show that the line joining the origin to the point (2, 1, 1) is perpendicular to the line determined by the points (3, 5, – 1), (4, 3, – 1).

Question 2. If l1, m1, n1 and l2, m2, n2 are the direction cosines of two mutually perpendicular lines, show that the direction cosines of the line perpendicular to both of these are 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 m n − m n , n l − n l , l m − l m

Question 3. Find the angle between the lines whose direction ratios are a, b, c and b – c, c – a, a – b.

Question 4. Find the equation of a line parallel to x-axis and passing through the origin.

Question 5. If the coordinates of the points A, B, C, D be (1, 2, 3), (4, 5, 7), (– 4, 3, – 6) and (2, 9, 2) respectively, then find the angle between the lines AB and CD.

Question 10. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through (5, 1, 6) and (3, 4,1) crosses the YZ-plane.

Question 11. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through (5, 1, 6) and (3, 4, 1) crosses the ZX-plane.

Question 12. Find the coordinates of the point where the line through (3, – 4, – 5) and (2, – 3, 1) crosses the plane 2x + y + z = 7.

Question 13. Find the equation of the plane passing through the point (– 1, 3, 2) and perpendicular to each of the planes x + 2y + 3z = 5 and 3x + 3y + z = 0.

Question 14. If the points (1, 1, p) and (– 3, 0, 1) be equidistant from the plane (3 ˆ + 4 ˆ −12 ˆ) +13 = 0, r i j k then find the value of p.

Question 15. Find the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes r (iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) =1 and r (2 iˆ + 3 ˆj − kˆ) + 4 = 0 and parallel to x-axis.

Question 16. If O be the origin and the coordinates of P be (1, 2, – 3), then find the equation of the plane passing through P and perpendicular to OP.

Question 17. Find the equation of the plane which contains the line of intersection of the planes r (iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3 kˆ) − 4 = 0 , r (2 iˆ + ˆj − kˆ) + 5 = 0 and which is perpendicular to the plane r (5 iˆ + 3 ˆj − 6kˆ) + 8 = 0 ] .

Question 18. Find the distance of the point (– 1, – 5, – 10) from the point of intersection of the line r = 2 iˆ − ˆj + 2 kˆ + λ (3 iˆ + 4 ˆj + 2 kˆ) and the plane r (iˆ − ˆj + kˆ) = 5 .

Question 19. Find the vector equation of the line passing through (1, 2, 3) and parallel to the planes r (iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ) = 5 and r (3 iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) = 6 .

Question 20. Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point (1, 2, – 4) and perpendicular to the two lines:

:: Chapter 12 - Linear Programming ::

EXERCISE 12.1

Solve the following Linear Programming Problems graphically:

Question 1. Maximise Z = 3x + 4y subject to the constraints : x + y ≤ 4, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.

Question 2. Minimise Z = – 3x + 4 y subject to x + 2y ≤ 8, 3x + 2y ≤ 12, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.

Question 3. Maximise Z = 5x + 3y subject to 3x + 5y ≤ 15, 5x + 2y ≤ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.

Question 4. Minimise Z = 3x + 5y such that x + 3y ≥ 3, x + y ≥ 2, x, y ≥ 0.

Question 5. Maximise Z = 3x + 2y subject to x + 2y ≤ 10, 3x + y ≤ 15, x, y ≥ 0.

Question 6. Minimise Z = x + 2y subject to 2x + y ≥ 3, x + 2y ≥ 6, x, y ≥ 0. Show that the minimum of Z occurs at more than two points.

Question 7. Minimise and Maximise Z = 5x + 10 y subject to x + 2y ≤ 120, x + y ≥ 60, x – 2y ≥ 0, x, y ≥ 0.

Question 8. Minimise and Maximise Z = x + 2y subject to x + 2y ≥ 100, 2x – y ≤ 0, 2x + y ≤ 200; x, y ≥ 0.

Question 9. Maximise Z = – x + 2y, subject to the constraints: x ≥ 3, x + y ≥ 5, x + 2y ≥ 6, y ≥ 0.

Question 10. Maximise Z = x + y, subject to x – y ≤ –1, –x + y ≤ 0, x, y ≥ 0.

EXERCISE 12.2

Question 1. Reshma wishes to mix two types of food P and Q in such a way that the vitamin contents of the mixture contain at least 8 units of vitamin A and 11 units of vitamin B. Food P costs Rs 60/kg and Food Q costs Rs 80/kg. Food P contains 3 units/kg of Vitamin A and 5 units / kg of Vitamin B while food Q contains 4 units/kg of Vitamin A and 2 units/kg of vitamin B. Determine the minimum cost of the mixture.

Question 2. One kind of cake requires 200g of flour and 25g of fat, and another kind of cake requires 100g of flour and 50g of fat. Find the maximum number of cakes which can be made from 5kg of flour and 1 kg of fat assuming that there is no shortage of the other ingredients used in making the cakes.

Question 3. A factory makes tennis rackets and cricket bats. A tennis racket takes 1.5 hours of machine time and 3 hours of craftman's time in its making while a cricket bat takes 3 hour of machine time and 1 hour of craftman's time. In a day, the factory has the availability of not more than 42 hours of machine time and 24 hours of craftsman's time.
(i) What number of rackets and bats must be made if the factory is to work at full capacity?
(ii) If the profit on a racket and on a bat is Rs 20 and Rs 10 respectively, find the maximum profit of the factory when it works at full capacity.

Question 4. A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts. It takes 1 hour of work on machine A and 3 hours on machine B to produce a package of nuts. It takes 3 hours on machine A and 1 hour on machine B to produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of Rs17.50 per package on nuts and Rs 7.00 per package on bolts. How many packages of each should be produced each day so as to maximise his profit, if he operates his machines for at the most 12 hours a day?

Question 5. A factory manufactures two types of screws, A and B. Each type of screw requires the use of two machines, an automatic and a hand operated. It takes 4 minutes on the automatic and 6 minutes on hand operated machines to manufacture a package of screws A, while it takes 6 minutes on automatic and 3 minutes on the hand operated machines to manufacture a package of screws B. Each machine is available for at the most 4 hours on any day. The manufacturer can sell a package of screws A at a profit of Rs 7 and screws B at a profit of Rs 10. Assuming that he can sell all the screws he manufactures, how many packages of each type should the factory owner produce in a day in order to maximise his profit? Determine the maximum profit.

Question 6. A cottage industry manufactures pedestal lamps and wooden shades, each requiring the use of a grinding/cutting machine and a sprayer. It takes 2 hours on grinding/cutting machine and 3 hours on the sprayer to manufacture a pedestal lamp. It takes 1 hour on the grinding/cutting machine and 2 hours on the sprayer to manufacture a shade. On any day, the sprayer is available for at the most 20 hours and the grinding/cutting machine for at the most 12 hours. The profit from the sale of a lamp is Rs 5 and that from a shade is Rs 3. Assuming that the manufacturer can sell all the lamps and shades that he produces, how should he schedule his daily production in order to maximise his profit?

Question 7. A company manufactures two types of novelty souvenirs made of plywood. Souvenirs of type A require 5 minutes each for cutting and 10 minutes each for assembling. Souvenirs of type B require 8 minutes each for cutting and 8 minutes each for assembling. There are 3 hours 20 minutes available for cutting and 4 hours for assembling. The profit is Rs 5 each for type A and Rs 6 each for type B souvenirs. How many souvenirs of each type should the company manufacture in order to maximise the profit?

Question 8. A merchant plans to sell two types of personal computers – a desktop model and a portable model that will cost Rs 25000 and Rs 40000 respectively. He estimates that the total monthly demand of computers will not exceed 250 units. Determine the number of units of each type of computers which the merchant should stock to get maximum profit if he does not want to invest more than Rs 70 lakhs and if his profit on the desktop model is Rs 4500 and on portable model is Rs 5000.

Question 9. A diet is to contain at least 80 units of vitamin A and 100 units of minerals. Two foods F1 and F2 are available. Food F1 costs Rs 4 per unit food and F2 costs Rs 6 per unit. One unit of food F1 contains 3 units of vitamin A and 4 units of minerals. One unit of food F2 contains 6 units of vitamin A and 3 units of minerals. Formulate this as a linear programming problem. Find the minimum cost for diet that consists of mixture of these two foods and also meets the minimal nutritional requirements.

Question 10. There are two types of fertilisers F1 and F2. F1 consists of 10% nitrogen and 6% phosphoric acid and F2 consists of 5% nitrogen and 10% phosphoric acid. After testing the soil conditions, a farmer finds that she needs atleast 14 kg of nitrogen and 14 kg of phosphoric acid for her crop. If F1 costs Rs 6/kg and F2 costs Rs 5/kg, determine how much of each type of fertiliser should be used so that nutrient requirements are met at a minimum cost. What is the minimum cost?

Question 11. The corner points of the feasible region determined by the following system of linear inequalities: 2x + y ≤ 10, x + 3y ≤ 15, x, y ≥ 0 are (0, 0), (5, 0), (3, 4) and (0, 5). Let Z = px + qy, where p, q > 0. Condition on p and q so that the maximum of Z occurs at both (3, 4) and (0, 5) is
(A) p = q
(B) p = 2q
(C) p = 3q
(D) q = 3p

Miscellaneous Exercise

Question 1. Refer to Example 9. How many packets of each food should be used to maximise the amount of vitamin A in the diet? What is the maximum amount of vitamin A

Question 2. A farmer mixes two brands P and Q of cattle feed. Brand P, costing Rs 250 per bag, contains 3 units of nutritional element A, 2.5 units of element B and 2 units of element C. Brand Q costing Rs 200 per bag contains 1.5 units of nutritional element A, 11.25 units of element B, and 3 units of element C. The minimum requirements of nutrients A, B and C are 18 units, 45 units and 24 units respectively. Determine the number of bags of each brand which should be mixed in order to produce a mixture having a minimum cost per bag? What is the minimum cost of the mixture per bag?

Question 3. A dietician wishes to mix together two kinds of food X and Y in such a way that the mixture contains at least 10 units of vitamin A, 12 units of vitamin B and 8 units of vitamin C. The vitamin contents of one kg food is given below: in the diet?

One kg of food X costs Rs 16 and one kg of food Y costs Rs

Question 20. Find the least cost of the mixture which will produce the required diet? 4. A manufacturer makes two types of toys A and B. Three machines are needed for this purpose and the time (in minutes) required for each toy on the machines is given below:

Each machine is available for a maximum of 6 hours per day. If the profit on each toy of type A is Rs 7.50 and that on each toy of type B is Rs 5, show that 15 toys of type A and 30 of type B should be manufactured in a day to get maximum profit.

Question 5. An aeroplane can carry a maximum of 200 passengers. A profit of Rs 1000 is made on each executive class ticket and a profit of Rs 600 is made on each economy class ticket. The airline reserves at least 20 seats for executive class. However, at least 4 times as many passengers prefer to travel by economy class than by the executive class. Determine how many tickets of each type must be sold in order to maximise the profit for the airline. What is the maximum profit?

Question 9. Refer to Question 8. If the grower wants to maximise the amount of nitrogen added to the garden, how many bags of each brand should be added? What is the maximum amount of nitrogen added?

Question 10. A toy company manufactures two types of dolls, A and B. Market tests and available resources have indicated that the combined production level should not exceed 1200 dolls per week and the demand for dolls of type B is at most half of that for dolls of type A. Further, the production level of dolls of type A can exceed three times the production of dolls of other type by at most 600 units. If the company makes profit of Rs 12 and Rs 16 per doll respectively on dolls A and B, how many of each should be produced weekly in order to maximise the profit?

:: Chapter 13 - Probability ::

Question 7. Two coins are tossed once, where (i) E : tail appears on one coin, F : one coin shows head (ii) E : no tail appears, F : no head appears

Question 8. A die is thrown three times, E : 4 appears on the third toss, F : 6 and 5 appears respectively on first two tosses

Question 9. Mother, father and son line up at random for a family picture E : son on one end, F : father in middle

Question 10. A black and a red dice are rolled.
(a) Find the conditional probability of obtaining a sum greater than 9, given that the black die resulted in a 5 .
(b) Find the conditional probability of obtaining the sum 8, given that the red die resulted in a number less than 4.

Question 11. A fair die is rolled. Consider events E = {1,3,5}, F = {2,3} and G = {2,3,4,5} Find
(i) P(E|F) and P(F|E)
(ii) P(E|G) and P(G|E)
(iii) P((E ∪ F)|G) and P ((E ∩ F)|G)

Question 12. Assume that each born child is equally likely to be a boy or a girl. If a family has two children, what is the conditional probability that both are girls given that (i) the youngest is a girl, (ii) at least one is a girl?

Question 13. An instructor has a question bank consisting of 300 easy True / False questions, 200 difficult True / False questions, 500 easy multiple choice questions and 400 difficult multiple choice questions. If a question is selected at random from the question bank, what is the probability that it will be an easy question given that it is a multiple choice question?

Question 14. Given that the two numbers appearing on throwing two dice are different. Find the probability of the event 'the sum of numbers on the dice is 4'.

Question 15. Consider the experiment of throwing a die, if a multiple of 3 comes up, throw the die again and if any other number comes, toss a coin. Find the conditional probability of the event 'the coin shows a tail', given that 'at least one die shows a 3'. In each of the Exercises 16 and 17 choose the correct answer:

Question 17. If A and B are events such that P(A|B) = P(B|A), then (
A) A ⊂ B but A ≠ B
(B) A = B
(C) A ∩ B = φ
(D) P(A) = P(B)

Question 2. Two cards are drawn at random and without replacement from a pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that both the cards are black.

Question 3. A box of oranges is inspected by examining three randomly selected oranges drawn without replacement. If all the three oranges are good, the box is approved for sale, otherwise, it is rejected. Find the probability that a box containing 15 oranges out of which 12 are good and 3 are bad ones will be approved for sale.

Question 4. A fair coin and an unbiased die are tossed. Let A be the event 'head appears on the coin' and B be the event '3 on the die'. Check whether A and B are independent events or not.

Question 5. A die marked 1, 2, 3 in red and 4, 5, 6 in green is tossed. Let A be the event, 'the number is even,' and B be the event, 'the number is red'. Are A and B independent?

Question 12. A die is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting an odd number at least once.

Question 13. Two balls are drawn at random with replacement from a box containing 10 black and 8 red balls. Find the probability that
(i) both balls are red.
(ii) first ball is black and second is red.
(iii) one of them is black and other is red.

Question 14. Probability of solving specific problem independently by A and B are 1 2 and 1 3 respectively. If both try to solve the problem independently, find the probability that (i) the problem is solved (ii) exactly one of them solves the problem.

Question 15. One card is drawn at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. In which of the following cases are the events E and F independent ?
(i) E : 'the card drawn is a spade' F : 'the card drawn is an ace'
(ii) E : 'the card drawn is black' F : 'the card drawn is a king'
(iii) E : 'the card drawn is a king or queen' F : 'the card drawn is a queen or jack'.

Question 16. In a hostel, 60% of the students read Hindi news paper, 40% read English news paper and 20% read both Hindi and English news papers. A student is selected at random.
(a) Find the probability that she reads neither Hindi nor English news papers.
(b) If she reads Hindi news paper, find the probability that she reads English news paper.
(c) If she reads English news paper, find the probability that she reads Hindi news paper. Choose the correct answer in Exercises 17 and 18.

Question 17. The probability of obtaining an even prime number on each die, when a pair of dice is rolled is
(A) 0
(B) 1 3
(C) 1 12
(D) 1 36

Question 18. Two events A and B will be independent, if
(A) A and B are mutually exclusive
(B) P(A′B′) = [1 – P(A)] [1 – P(B)]
(C) P(A) = P(B)
(D) P(A) + P(B) = 1

Question 16. In a hostel, 60% of the students read Hindi news paper, 40% read English news paper and 20% read both Hindi and English news papers. A student is selected at random.
(a) Find the probability that she reads neither Hindi nor English news papers.
(b) If she reads Hindi news paper, find the probability that she reads English news paper.
(c) If she reads English news paper, find the probability that she reads Hindi news paper. Choose the correct answer in Exercises 17 and 18.

Question 17. The probability of obtaining an even prime number on each die, when a pair of dice is rolled is
(A) 0
(B) 1 3
(C) 1 12
(D) 1 36

Question 18. Two events A and B will be independent, if
(A) A and B are mutually exclusive
(B) P(A′B′) = [1 – P(A)] [1 – P (B)]
(C) P(A) = P(B)
(D) P(A) + P(B) = 1

EXERCISE 13.3

Question 1. An urn contains 5 red and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random, its colour is noted and is returned to the urn. Moreover, 2 additional balls of the colour drawn are put in the urn and then a ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the second ball is red?

Question 2. A bag contains 4 red and 4 black balls, another bag contains 2 red and 6 black balls. One of the two bags is selected at random and a ball is drawn from the bag which is found to be red. Find the probability that the ball is drawn from the first bag.

Question 3. Of the students in a college, it is known that 60% reside in hostel and 40% are day scholars (not residing in hostel). Previous year results report that 30% of all students who reside in hostel attain A grade and 20% of day scholars attain A grade in their annual examination. At the end of the year, one student is chosen at random from the college and he has an A grade, what is the probability that the student is a hostlier?

Question 4. In answering a question on a multiple choice test, a student either knows the answer or guesses. Let 3 4 be the probability that he knows the answer and 1 4 be the probability that he guesses. Assuming that a student who guesses at the answer will be correct with probability 1 4 . What is the probability that the student knows the answer given that he answered it correctly?

Question 5. A laboratory blood test is 99% effective in detecting a certain disease when it is in fact, present. However, the test also yields a false positive result for 0.5% of the healthy person tested (i.e. if a healthy person is tested, then, with probability 0.005, the test will imply he has the disease). If 0.1 percent of the population actually has the disease, what is the probability that a person has the disease given that his test result is positive ?

Question 6. There are three coins. One is a two headed coin (having head on both faces), another is a biased coin that comes up heads 75% of the time and third is an unbiased coin. One of the three coins is chosen at random and tossed, it shows heads, what is the probability that it was the two headed coin ?

Question 7. An insurance company insured 2000 scooter drivers, 4000 car drivers and 6000 truck drivers. The probability of an accidents are 0.01, 0.03 and 0.15 respectively. One of the insured persons meets with an accident. What is the probability that he is a scooter driver?

Question 8. A factory has two machines A and B. Past record shows that machine A produced 60% of the items of output and machine B produced 40% of the items. Further, 2% of the items produced by machine A and 1% produced by machine B were defective. All the items are put into one stockpile and then one item is chosen at random from this and is found to be defective. What is the probability that it was produced by machine B?

Question 9. Two groups are competing for the position on the Board of directors of a corporation. The probabilities that the first and the second groups will win are 0.6 and 0.4 respectively. Further, if the first group wins, the probability of introducing a new product is 0.7 and the corresponding probability is 0.3 if the second group wins. Find the probability that the new product introduced was by the second group.

Question 10. Suppose a girl throws a die. If she gets a 5 or 6, she tosses a coin three times and notes the number of heads. If she gets 1, 2, 3 or 4, she tosses a coin once and notes whether a head or tail is obtained. If she obtained exactly one head, what is the probability that she threw 1, 2, 3 or 4 with the die?

Question 11. A manufacturer has three machine operators A, B and C. The first operator A produces 1% defective items, where as the other two operators B and C produce 5% and 7% defective items respectively. A is on the job for 50% of the time, B is on the job for 30% of the time and C is on the job for 20% of the time. A defective item is produced, what is the probability that it was produced by A?

Question 12. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the pack, two cards are drawn and are found to be both diamonds. Find the probability of the lost card being a diamond.

Question 13. Probability that A speaks truth is 4 5 . A coin is tossed. A reports that a head appears. The probability that actually there was head is
(A) 4 5
(B) 1 2
(C) 1 5
(D) 2 5

Question 14. If A and B are two events such that A ⊂ B and P(B) ≠ 0, then which of the following is correct?
(A) P(A| B) P(B) P(A) =
(B) P(A|B) < P(A)
(C) P(A|B) ≥ P(A)
(D) None of these

EXERCISE 13.4

Question 1. State which of the following are not the probability distributions of a random variable. Give reasons for your answer.

Question 2. An urn contains 5 red and 2 black balls. Two balls are randomly drawn. Let X represent the number of black balls. What are the possible values of X? Is X a random variable ?

Question 3. Let X represent the difference between the number of heads and the number of tails obtained when a coin is tossed 6 times. What are possible values of X?

Question 4. Find the probability distribution of (i) number of heads in two tosses of a coin. (ii) number of tails in the simultaneous tosses of three coins. (iii) number of heads in four tosses of a coin.

Question 5. Find the probability distribution of the number of successes in two tosses of a die, where a success is defined as (i) number greater than 4 (ii) six appears on at least one die.

Question 6. From a lot of 30 bulbs which include 6 defectives, a sample of 4 bulbs is drawn at random with replacement. Find the probability distribution of the number of defective bulbs.

Question 7. A coin is biased so that the head is 3 times as likely to occur as tail. If the coin is tossed twice, find the probability distribution of number of tails.

Question 8. A random variable X has the following probability distribution :

Question 9.Determine
(i) k
(ii) P(X < 3)
(iii) P(X > 6)
(iv) P(0 < X < 3)

EXERCISE 13.5

Question 1. A die is thrown 6 times. If 'getting an odd number' is a success, what is the probability of (i) 5 successes? (ii) at least 5 successes? (iii) at most 5 successes?

Question 2. A pair of dice is thrown 4 times. If getting a doublet is considered a success, find the probability of two successes.

Question 3. There are 5% defective items in a large bulk of items. What is the probability that a sample of 10 items will include not more than one defective item?

Question 4. Five cards are drawn successively with replacement from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the probability that (i) all the five cards are spades? (ii) only 3 cards are spades? (iii) none is a spade?

Question 5. The probability that a bulb produced by a factory will fuse after 150 days of use is 0.05. Find the probability that out of 5 such bulbs (i) none (ii) not more than one (iii) more than one (iv) at least one will fuse after 150 days of use.

Question 6. A bag consists of 10 balls each marked with one of the digits 0 to 9. If four balls are drawn successively with replacement from the bag, what is the probability that none is marked with the digit 0?

Question 7. In an examination, 20 questions of true-false type are asked. Suppose a student tosses a fair coin to determine his answer to each question. If the coin falls heads, he answers 'true'; if it falls tails, he answers 'false'. Find the probability that he answers at least 12 questions correctly.

Question 8. Suppose X has a binomial distribution B 6, 1 2 . Show that X = 3 is the most likely outcome. (Hint : P(X = 3) is the maximum among all P(xi), xi = 0,1,2,3,4,5,6)

Question 9. On a multiple choice examination with three possible answers for each of the five questions, what is the probability that a candidate would get four or more correct answers just by guessing ?

Question 10. A person buys a lottery ticket in 50 lotteries, in each of which his chance of winning a prize is 1 100 . What is the probability that he will win a prize
(a) at least once
(b) exactly once
(c) at least twice?

Question 11. Find the probability of getting 5 exactly twice in 7 throws of a die.

Question 12. Find the probability of throwing at most 2 sixes in 6 throws of a single die.

Question 13. It is known that 10% of certain articles manufactured are defective. What is the probability that in a random sample of 12 such articles, 9 are defective? In each of the following, choose the correct answer:

Question 14. In a box containing 100 bulbs, 10 are defective. The probability that out of a sample of 5 bulbs, none is defective is

Miscellaneous Exercise

Question 1. A and B are two events such that P (A) ≠ 0. Find P(B|A), if (i) A is a subset of B (ii) A ∩ B = φ

Question 2. A couple has two children, (i) Find the probability that both children are males, if it is known that at least one of the children is male. (ii) Find the probability that both children are females, if it is known that the elder child is a female.

Question 3. Suppose that 5% of men and 0.25% of women have grey hair. A grey haired person is selected at random. What is the probability of this person being male? Assume that there are equal number of males and females.

Question 4. Suppose that 90% of people are right-handed. What is the probability that at most 6 of a random sample of 10 people are right-handed?

Question 5. An urn contains 25 balls of which 10 balls bear a mark 'X' and the remaining 15 bear a mark 'Y'. A ball is drawn at random from the urn, its mark is noted down and it is replaced. If 6 balls are drawn in this way, find the probability that
(i) all will bear 'X' mark.
(ii) not more than 2 will bear 'Y' mark.
(iii) at least one ball will bear 'Y' mark.
(iv) the number of balls with 'X' mark and 'Y' mark will be equal.

Question 6. In a hurdle race, a player has to cross 10 hurdles. The probability that he will clear each hurdle is 5 6 . What is the probability that he will knock down fewer than 2 hurdles?

Question 7. A die is thrown again and again until three sixes are obtained. Find the probability of obtaining the third six in the sixth throw of the die.

Question 8. If a leap year is selected at random, what is the chance that it will contain 53 tuesdays?

Question 9. An experiment succeeds twice as often as it fails. Find the probability that in the next six trials, there will be atleast 4 successes.

Question 10. How many times must a man toss a fair coin so that the probability of having at least one head is more than 90%?

Question 11. In a game, a man wins a rupee for a six and loses a rupee for any other number when a fair die is thrown. The man decided to throw a die thrice but to quit as and when he gets a six. Find the expected value of the amount he wins / loses.

Question 12. Suppose we have four boxes A,B,C and D containing coloured marbles as given below: One of the boxes has been selected at random and a single marble is drawn from it. If the marble is red, what is the probability that it was drawn from box A?, box B?, box C?

Question 13. Assume that the chances of a patient having a heart attack is 40%. It is also assumed that a meditation and yoga course reduce the risk of heart attack by 30% and prescription of certain drug reduces its chances by 25%. At a time a patient can choose any one of the two options with equal probabilities. It is given that after going through one of the two options the patient selected at random suffers a heart attack. Find the probability that the patient followed a course of meditation and yoga?

Question 14. If each element of a second order determinant is either zero or one, what is the probability that the value of the determinant is positive? (Assume that the individual entries of the determinant are chosen independently, each value being assumed with probability 1 2 ).

Question 15. An electronic assembly consists of two subsystems, say, A and B. From previous testing procedures, the following probabilities are assumed to be known: P(A fails) = 0.2 P(B fails alone) = 0.15 P(A and B fail) = 0.15 Evaluate the following probabilities (i) P(A fails|B has failed) (ii) P(A fails alone)

Question 16. Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls and Bag II contains 4 red and 5 black balls. One ball is transferred from Bag I to Bag II and then a ball is drawn from Bag II. The ball so drawn is found to be red in colour. Find the probability that the transferred ball is black. Choose the correct answer in each of the following:

Question 17. If A and B are two events such that P(A) ≠ 0 and P(B | A) = 1, then
(A) A ⊂ B
(B) B ⊂ A
(C) B = φ
(D) A = φ

Question 18. If P(A|B) > P(A), then which of the following is correct :
(A) P(B|A) < P
(B) (B) P(A ∩ B) < P(A) . P(B)
(C) P(B|A) > P(B)
(D) P(B|A) = P(B)

Question 19. If A and B are any two events such that P(A) + P(B) – P(A and B) = P(A), then
(A) P(B|A) = 1
(B) P(A|B) = 1
(C) P(B|A) = 0
(D) P(A|B) = 0