INDIA EXAMINATIONS: CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2018-19 : (Bodo)

Tuesday, January 15, 2019

CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2018-19 : (Bodo)

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(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2018-19 : (Bodo)
(Download) CBSE: Class XII Basic Pattern Development Question Paper - 2018
CBSE Class-10 Exam 2018 : All India Scheme Question Paper-Dynamic of Retailing
(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Political Science)
(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper 2015-16 : Science
(Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper 2018-19 : Kuchipudi
(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2018-19 : (Bhutia)

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2018-19 : (Bodo)

Posted: 15 Jan 2019 12:02 AM PST

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2018-19 :

(Bhutia)

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CBSE (Class X) Previous Year Papers Printed Books

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CBSE Board Class-X

सीबीएसई बोर्ड कक्षा-10

Sample Paper

Bodo

Class-10

(Download) CBSE: Class XII Basic Pattern Development Question Paper - 2018

Posted: 14 Jan 2019 11:53 PM PST

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Basic Pattern Devolopment

Subject : Basic Pattern Devolopment

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(i) Attempt all sections.
(ii) Illustrate your answers wherever possible.

Questions :

SECTION A

Attempt all questions

1. Define the term ‘Gusset’.

2. List any four numbered sizes.

3. How should the side seams lie in a well-fitted garment ?

4. Name two components which are important for children’s sizing system.

5. Define Style Ease.

SECTION B

Give very short answers.

6. List any two body measurements which require the lowest shoulder point as a landmark. How would you locate the same on the human body ?

7. What is a tracing wheel ? Give its role in pattern making.

8. List the various methods of finishing necklines in a garment.
OR
Give the difference between puff sleeve and flared sleeve.

9. How is the block method different from the direct method of making patterns ?

10.How will you evaluate the fit of a neckline in a garment ?
OR
What do you understand by ‘test fit of a garment’ ? Which fabric is generally used for it ?

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CBSE Board Class-XII

सीबीएसई बोर्ड कक्षा-12

सीबीएसई बोर्ड परीक्षा

Downloads

Exam Paper

Class-12

CBSE Class-10 Exam 2018 : All India Scheme Question Paper-Dynamic of Retailing

Posted: 14 Jan 2019 11:52 PM PST

CBSE Class-10 Exam 2018 : All India Scheme
Question Paper-Dynamic of Retailing

Subject : Dynamic of Retailing

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 80

Please check that this question paper contains 4 printed pages.
Code number given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidates.
Please check that this question paper contains 22 questions.
Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.
15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.

General Instructions :

(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question No. 1 to 8 are multiple choice questions and each question carry one mark.
(iii) Question No. 9 to 14 are very short answer questions and each question carry two marks.
(iv) Question No. 15 to 19 are short answer questions and each question carry three marks.
(v) Question No. 20 to 22 are long answer questions and each question carry five marks.

SECTION – A

1. These stores provide a variety of exclusive merchandise at low price :
(a) Super Market
(b) Convenience Stores
(c) Hyper Market
(d) All of the above

2.Retail has changed our lives and changed the
(a) way we live without it
(b) the way we do not live
(c) the way we live
(d) None of the above

3. Which is not a function of admin. junior merchandiser ?
(a) Managing store facilities
(b) Crisis management
(c) Forecasting sales of forthcoming
(d) Managing personnel

4. A circulating plan of a store is meant to :
(a) Target specific customers
(b) Enhance space
(c) Create an image
(d) None of the above

5. The blend of straight floor and diagonal floor layout is called
(a) Free flow layout
(b) Grid layout
(c) Spine layout
(d) Rack layout

6. For long distance and heavy weight of goods we need
(a) Combination of water and air transport
(b) Road transport
(c) Combination of water and road transport
(d) Only water transport

7.Security guards who keep moving around the perimeter, observe and monitor people for suspicious behaviour or action are called
(a) Static security guard
(b) Residential security guards
(c) Mobile security guards
(d) Personal security guards

8. Horizontal Communication is essential for
(a) Accomplishing task
(b) Boost Morale
(c) Control decision making
(d) All the above

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CBSE Board Class-X

सीबीएसई बोर्ड कक्षा-10

सीबीएसई बोर्ड परीक्षा

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Exam Paper

Class-10

(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Political Science)

Posted: 14 Jan 2019 11:49 PM PST

(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Political Science)

TIME-3HRS

MM-100

General Instructions:-

a) All questions are compulsory.
b) Question nos. 1 to 5 carry 1 mark each. Answer should not exceed 20 words each.
c) Question nos. 6 to 10 carry 2 marks each. Answer should not exceed 40 words each.
d) Question nos. 11 to 16 carry 4 marks each. Answer should not exceed 100 words each.
e) Question nos. 17 to 21 carry 5 marks each. Answer should not exceed 150 words each.
f) Question no 21 is a map –based question. Write its answer in your answer book
g) Question nos. 22 to 27 carry 6 marks each. Answer should not exceed 150 words each.

1. Name the paramilitary force of Hyderabad Nizam to counter communist forces during 1947.

2. Which one of the following statements about the Bandwagon Strategy is false?

A. advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system
B. to take advantage of the opportunities that hegemony creates
C. staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible
D. for raising economic power work with hegemony

3. Why was BAMCEF established?

4. How did the Anti Arrack Movement lead to 73rd and 74th amendment of the Indian constitution?

5. Mention any two reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev in the Soviet Union

6. Match the following Secretary Generals of UNO with their respective countries:

A. Trygve Lie                                 i. Egypt
B. Boutros-Boutros Ghali             ii. Ghana
C. Kofi Annan                              iii. Burma (Myanmar
D. U Thant                                    iv. Norway

7. How is oil continued to be the most important resource in the global strategy? Explain with an example.

8. Why was Shah Commission appointed? Mention any one of its finding

9. State the outcomes of Punjab Accord.

10. How did the opposition parties of 1950s play a crucial role in making the democratic character of the system? Explain

11. How can peace and cooperation be enhanced in the SAARC region? Give any four reforms.

12. Mention the role of E V Ramaswamy Naicker in the Dravidian Movement

13. European Union has become a Supra-National organization. Explain.

14. Examine the key controversies over the strategy of economic development in the early years of independence.

15. Highlight the political and social aspects of the soviet system prior to 1991.

16. ,'The question of indigenous people brings the issue of environment, resources and politics together'. Explain the statement.

17. Read the following passage and answer the following questions: The process of nation-building did not come to an end with the partition and integration of princely states. Now the challenge was to draw the internal boundaries of the Indian states. The boundaries had to be drawn in a way so that the linguistic and cultural plurality of the country could be reflected without affecting the unity of the nation.

a) Which commission was appointed to look into the question of redrawing of boundaries of the states on the lingual basis?
b) Why did the lingual issues become the basis of the formation of Andhra Pradesh?
c) How is democracy associated with plurality?

18. Read the following passage and answer the following questions: The emergency and the period around it can be described as a period of the constitutional crisis because it had its origins in the constitutional battle over the jurisdiction of the parliament and the judiciary. On the other hand, it was also a period of political crisis. The party in power had absolute majority and yet, its leadership decided to suspend the democratic process.

a) Why is the period of emergency described as a period of political crisis?
b) What were the issues of dispute between judiciary and parliament during 1970's?
c) How did the role of mass protest during emergency reflect the attributed aspiration of people?

19. Read the following passage and answer the following questions: The Cuban missile crisis was a high point of what came to be known as the cold war. The cold war referred to the competition, the tensions and a series of confrontations between the United States and Soviet Union, backed by their respective allies. Fortunately, it never escalated into a hot war, that is a full scale war between these two powers.

a) Why was the Cuban missile crisis considered as a high point of cold war?
b) Mention any two contentious issues between USA and USSR.
c) Name any two military alliances formed by the USA during the cold war.

20. Read the following Cartoon and answer the following questions:

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(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper 2015-16 : Science

Posted: 14 Jan 2019 11:49 PM PST

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2015-16 : Science

Sample Question Paper 2016

Science

Class – X (SA – II)

Time allowed: 03 Hours

Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) There is no choice in any of the question.
(iv) All questions of Section-A and B are to be attempted separately.
(v) Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section - A are one mark question. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section - A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section - A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are 5 marks questions. These are to be answered in 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section- B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
(x) Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

SECTION – A

1 Name the process of converting vegetable oil to vegetable ghee. 1

2 Give reason for the statement- Since the ovary releases one egg every month, the uterus also prepares itself every month by making its lining thick and spongy.1

3 Name the component of white light that has the greatest wavelength.1

4 Which natural resource are the „biodiversity hot spots‟? Suggest what happens when there is a loss of biodiversity? 2

5 Write the name and molecular formula of an organic compound having its name suffixed with „–ol‟ and having two carbon atoms in the molecule. With the help of a balanced equation indicate what happens when its heated with excess of conc. H₂SO₄. ½ + ½ +1

6 A cube of edge 6 cm is placed over a printed page. At what distance from the top surface of cube will the letters appear when seen from above? Refractive index of glass is 1.5 2

7What is meant by isomers? “We can not have isomers of the first three members of alkane series” give reason to justify this statement. Draw the structures of two isomers of pentane, C₅H₁₂ 1+1+1

8 i) Name the following:

a) Third member of aldehyde series
b) Second member of carboxylic series
ii) Write the IUPAC name of the following:

9 Four elements A, B, C and D have atomic numbers 12, 13, 14 and 15 respectively.
Answer the following questions giving reasons -
i) What is the number of valence electrons and valency of D?
ii) Which of them will have largest atomic radii?
iii) Which of these elements will form the most basic oxide? 1+1+1

10 Differentiate between combustion and oxidation reactions of ethanol. 3

11 In a germinating seed, which parts are known as future shoot and future root? Mention the function of cotyledon. 3

12 What is placenta? Write any two major functions of placenta. 3

13 „Different species use different strategies to determine sex of a newborn individual. It can be environmental cues or genetically determined‟. Explain the statement by giving example for each strategy. 3

14 A 2 cm high object is placed at a distance of 32 cm from a concave mirror. The image is real, inverted and 3 cm in size. Find the focal length of the mirror and the position where the image is formed? 3

15 A child while playing with his father‟s spectacles burnt a hole in a piece of paper by focusing a small image of the sun on it.
(i) What defect of vision his father is suffering from?
(ii) Write two causes for this defect?
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show image formation by the defective eye?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram showing corrected eye using proper lens. 3

16 Explain the formation of rainbow in the sky with the help of a diagram. List the three phenomena involved in proper sequence. 3

17 Which types of people are benefited from the development of different resources? Why do we need to use the resources carefully? 3

18 Write any three characteristics of a food chain. Dharmesh always treated the chemical effluent before disposing it in the water body. Mention any three moral values possessed by Dharmesh. 3

19 In the following table. Six elements A, B, C, D, E and F of the modern periodic table with atomic numbers 3 to 18 are given:

Sample Paper

Science

Class-10