Friday, October 20, 2017

CBSE PORTAL : (Notification) All India Sainik School Entrance Exam (AISSEE) Admission-2017

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(Notification) All India Sainik School Entrance Exam (AISSEE) Admission-2017

Posted: 20 Oct 2017 04:37 AM PDT

(Notification) All India Sainik School Entrance Exam (AISSEE) Admission-2017

Important Date :

The programme for the entrance examination is given below:-

(i) Sale of Prospectus/Admission form - 16th October 2017 to 30th November 2017

(i) Last date for receipt of application - 05th December, 2017 and exam fee (Saturday)

(iii) Date of Entrance Exam - 07th Jan 2018 (First Sunday of January) (Except Sainik School Nagrota, for which the exam will be conducted in April 2018)

(iv) Publication of Merit List of written - 8 th February 2018 exam (School wise) (Thursday)

(v) Interview and Medical Exam - 19th February 2018 to 10th March 2018

(vi) Publication of Final Merit List including - 19th March 2018 Waiting list. (Monday) (c) The Entrance Examination will be held for admission to class VI & IX. Boys who are between the age of 10 to 11 years (born between 02 Jul 2007 to 01 Jul 2008) and 13 to 14 year (born between 02 Jul 2004 to 01 Jul 2005) for Class IX are eligible to take the Entrance Examination. For admission to class IX, the boys should be studying in class VIII in a recognized school. Admission will be made strictly in order of merit only in classes VI and IX. In case the Entrance Examination cannot be conducted in any State/UT on account of administrative problem, a separate order will be issued to conduct another Entrance Examination on a date fixed by the Honorary Secretary.

Registraion Fee :

The Registration charge will be included in the selling price of the prospectus-sum-application forms at the following rates;-

(i) General and Defence Category Rs 400/-

(ii) SC/ST Rs 250/- -3-

Medium of Examination for Class VI examinations will be English, Hindi. The question papers for Class VI will continue to be set in English and all the recognized official languages. But question papers for class IX will be set in English only and students are required to answer in English.
In addition to 300 marks prescribed for Written Examination for Class VI and 400 marks for Class IX 50 marks for both VI & IX classes would be set apart for interview. The merit list for admission to the Sainik School would be complied on the basis of total marks. In case there is a tie with regard to overall marks, the marks for mathematics would be considered. In case there is a tie here also the marks for English for Class IX and Intelligence Test for class VI will be considered and thereafter the marks for General Science for Class IX and language for Class VI. In case there is a tie there also the boy younger in age will be selected. It will not be necessary for a boy to qualify separately in the interview and marks obtained in the writer test and interview together will determine his position in the final merit list.

Reservation :

(i) 15% of the total seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 7 ½% seats for Scheduled Tribes.

ii) Out of the remaining, 67% of the seats will be reserved for boys from the State in which the Sainik Schools is located. Balance 33% left over of seats will be thrown open to boys from other States and Union Territories in the ration of their male population. Any unutilized seats in this category will be merged with home State seats. (iii) 25% seats are reserved for children of service personnel including Ex-servicemen.

General Instructions :

1. Candidate has to use only ORIGINAL application form. Photocopy or Form downloaded from internet will NOT be accepted.

2. Use Black/Blue pen only to write and darken the circles.

3. Fill all columns neatly in CAPITAL Letters only.

4. Incomplete / unsigned/ wrongly filled and without photograph forms shall be rejected without intimation.

5. There are four choices available under the Column “School Applied For”. Choice 1 indicates the School in which a candidate seeks admission. Other three choices are to be filled IF AND ONLY IF, a candidate is willing to be considered for admission in any other Sainik School where a vacancy may be available.

6. Paste one recent passport photograph firmly (DO NOT STAPLE OR PIN UP) in the space provided.

7. In first field fill clearly name of the candidate as mentioned in the birth certificate.

8. Give one box gap between First / Middle / Surname.

9. In second field mention your Date of Birth as mentioned in the birth certificate.

10. In third field mention code for State/UT of domicile. For State/UT code please refer to the table 1.

11. In fourth field mention class in which you wish to apply for(Class VI OR IX).

12. In fifth field mention the category in which you wish to apply for.

13. In sixth field mention the category (HOME STATE OR OTHER STATE) you wish to apply for.

14. In seventh field mention your working mobile number for further correspondence. It is the responsibility of the candidate to ensure that this is a valid number on which SMS or Voice call can be received.

15. In eighth field mention your mailing address and also mention your e-mail address.

16. In ninth field affix one recent passport size photograph. DO NOT STAPLE THE SAME ON THE FORM.

17. In tenth field mention father’s name as mentioned in the certificate.

18. In eleventh field mention father’s Aadhaar number.

19. In twelfth field mention mother name as mentioned in the certificate.

20. In thirteenth field mention mother’s Aadhaar number.

21. In fourteenth field mention school code applied for – Choice 1, choice 2, choice 3, choice 4 (Ser 4 of these instructions also refers). For codes please refer to the table 1.

22. In fifteenth field mention exam center code – choice 1 and choice 2. For code please refer to the table 1. Please note that any of the proposed exam centres may be changed or cancelled if enough candidates are not available.

23. In seventeenth field mention medium for question paper. (Applicable only for class VI).

24. Declaration will be given by the parents/guardian.

25. Signature of Candidate and parent/guardian are required in the space provided.

26. Please note SAINIK SCHOOL, NAGROTA will conduct separate exam in APRIL 18.

27. For any assistance candidate can call on the helpline number 7840014449 from Monday to Saturday between 9:00 AM to 5:00 PM.

28. For online registration candidates may visit sainikschooladmission.in

Click Here for official Notification

Click Here for School List

Courtesy: AISSEE

Admission

Notification

AISSEE

Saturday, September 30, 2017

CBSE PORTAL : Class-10 2017-18 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Business)

Class-10 2017-18 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Business)

Posted: 29 Sep 2017 03:43 AM PDT

Class-10 2017-18 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme
(Business)

Time: 3 hours MM:100

Q. No	Question	Marks
1	Which of the following is not a feature of personal selling: a) develop personal relationship with customer b) personal form of communication c) flexible tool of promotion d) communicated through some media	1
2	____________are considered as a cushion of security. a) Equity b) Debentures c) Retained Earnings d) Trade Credit	1
3	Exchange of information between sender and receiver is known as: a) Directing b) Controlling c) Organising d) Communication	1
4	Centralised control in MNC's implies control exercised by a) Headquarters b) Government c) Branches d) Subsidiaries	1
5	Document that is sent by the seller to a potential customer offering to sell goods or services at a certain price is known as: a) Debit note b) Credit note c) Quotation d) Accounts Payable	1
6	Debentures are ______________type of capital of a company. a) Fluctuating b) borrowed c)Permanent d) Fixed	1
7	Invoice is prepared by ____________________in case of sale of goods a) Buyer b) Seller c) Bank d) Lender	1
8	Delhi Cloth Mills (DCM) Store is an example of which of the following: a) Mail Order House b) Multiple Shops c) Departmental Stores d) Super Markets	1
9	The process of communication is incomplete without____________ a) Rumours b)Feedback c) Encoding d) Decoding	1
10	Which of the following is a type of Non- store retailing a) Consumer Cooperative Store b) Selling through internet c) Franchisee d) Chain stores	1
11	Which of the following is an impersonal form of communication? a) Advertising b) Marketing c) Personal Selling d) Promotion	1
12	Reliance Jio distributed free sim cards for enhancing its customer base. Which promotion technique did the company adopt? a) Contests b) Sampling c) Lucky draw d) Rebate	1
13	_____________________is not a feature of a departmental store. a) Centralised location b) Wider Range c) Central purchases d) Specialised in one line product	1
14	___________ is an association of persons formed for carrying out business activities and has a legal status independent of its members is known as: a) Joint Hindu Family b) Partnership c) Consumer Cooperative society d) Company	1
15	Equity shareholders are called (a) Owners of the company (b) Partners of the company (c) Debtors of the company (d) Creditors of the company	1
16	Signature of a company is known as : a) Trademark of the company b) Logo of the company c) common seal d) signature of the director	1
17	Equity share capital is a permanent source of finance. Explain	3
18	State any three limitations of Mail Order Business	3
19	Briefly explain Radio as a media of advertising.	3
20	'Multinational Corporation creates employment in the host country'. Do you agree with the given statement? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.	3
21	Define Advertising. State any three difference between Advertising and Personal selling.	4
22	Explain the preferential rights enjoyed by Preference Shareholders over Equity Shareholders.	4
23	Discuss how a buyer can exercise the methods of 'purchase by sample' and 'purchase by inspection'.	4
24	Discuss the role of sender and receiver in the communication process under a business organisation.	4
25	No business organisation can imagine communication activities without telephone in the modern times'. Elaborate the given statement in the light of the present day communication methodologies.	4
26	State the steps involved in selling procedure.	4
27	Automatic Vending Machine is a new and innovative way of direct retailing. In the light of given statement state the advantages of Automatic vending machine.	4
28	State any four features of a multinational corporation.	4
29	Distinguish between public and private company on the basis of the following: a. Number of members b. Prospectus c. Number of directors d. Transfer of shares e. Minimum paid up capita	5
30	Explain any two sources of owner's fund that can be used for raising finance by a business organisation.	5
31	'Video Conferencing has been growing rapidly as a method of communication for the present day business organisations'. Discuss the advantages of the method in the light of the given statement.	5
32	Discuss briefly the following : a) Debit Note b) Credit Note	5
33	Write short notes on :- a. Email b. Letter	5
34	Explain the following two methods of purchase of goods:- a) Instalment Method b) Hire Purchase Method	5
35	Give any five point of distinction between Departmental and Chain Stores	5
36	Discuss briefly the following techniques of sales promotion, with suitable examples: a) Rebate b) Discount c) Refund d) Contest e) Lucky Draw	5

Click Here To Download Full Sample Paper

Click Here To Download Full Marking Scheme

Courtesy: CBSE

CBSE Board Class-X

सीबीएसई बोर्ड कक्षा-10

Exam Paper

Accountancy

Class-10

Thursday, September 28, 2017

CBSE PORTAL : (EBOOK) School Safety Policy by National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Executive Summary

(EBOOK) School Safety Policy by National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Executive Summary

Posted: 27 Sep 2017 02:52 AM PDT

School Safety Policy by National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Executive Summary

1.0 Introduction

1.1 Disasters as a critical threat to the well-being of children
1.2 Understanding School Safety
1.3 National Policy Instruments
1.4 Scope of the Guidelines

2.0 Vision, Approach and Objectives of the Guidelines

2.1 Vision
2.2 Key Challenges to Safe Schools
2.3 Approach 8
2.4 Objectives of the Policy Guidelines

3.0 Action areas

3.1 Strengthening institutional commitment to safe learning environment for
children
3.2 Planning for safety
3.3 Implementation of safety actions
3.4 Capacity building for safe schools
3.5 Regular monitoring of risk and revision of plan

4.0 Roles and Responsibilities of Different Stakeholders

4.1 State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs)
4.2 District Disaster Management Authorities (DDMAs)
4.3 National level Education Authorities
4.4 State level Education Authorities
4.5 District and Block level Education Authorities
4.6 SCERT and DIETs
4.7 School administration
4.8 Accreditation and Registration Authorities for schools
4.9 PRIs / Urban Local Bodies and Line departments
4.10 School Children
4.11 Non - Governmental Organizations (local, regional and international)
4.12 Corporate bodies
4.13 International Funding Agencies and United Nations
4.14 Media

5.0 Action Points for Stakeholders

5.1 National Level
5.2 State Level
5.3 District Level
5.4 School Level

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Courtesy : CBSE

CBSE Board Books

E-Books

(Download) CBSE Class-10 2017-18 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (SCIENCE)

Posted: 27 Sep 2017 02:27 AM PDT

(Download) CBSE Class-10 2017-18 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme

(Science)

Time allowed: 03 Hours

Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section-A and B are to be attempted separately.
(iv) There is an internal choice in two questions of three marks each and one question of five marks.
(v) Question numbers 1 and 2 in Section-A are one mark question. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 3 to 5 in Section- A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 6 to 15 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 16 to 21 in Section-A are 5 marks questions. These are to be answered in 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 22 to 27 in Section- B are based on practical skills. Each question is a two marks question. These are to be answered in brief.

SECTION – A

Give an example of a flower which contains both stamens and carpels.

Mention any one point of difference between Pepsin and Trypsin

An element "X" has mass number 35 and the number of neutrons, is 18. Identify the group number and period of "X"

An object of height 1.2m is placed before a concave mirror of focal length 20cm so that a real image is formed at a distance of 60cm from it. Find the position of an object. What will be the height of the image formed?

Why is there a need to harness non-conventional sources of energy? Give two main reasons.

Name the electric device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. Draw the labelled diagram and explain the principle involved in this device.

i) What is the function of earth wire in electrical instruments?

ii) Explain what is short circuiting an electric supply.

iii) What is the usual current rating of the fuse wire in the line to feed (a) Lights and fans? (b) Appliances of 2kW or more power?

Draw a circuit diagram of an electric circuit containing a cell, a key , an ammeter , a resistor of 4Ω in series with a combination of two resistors (8Ω each) in parallel and a voltmeter across parallel combination. Each of them dissipate maximum energy and can withstand a maximum power of 16W without melting. Find the maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.

In the electrolysis of water,

a) Name the gas collected at anode and cathode

b) Why is the volume of gas collected at one electrode double than the other?

c) What would happen if dil H2SO4 is not added to water?

Differentiate between the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev's periodic table and Modern periodic table.

10.

Explain the ways in which glucose is broken down in absence of oxygen.

List three differences between arteries and veins

11.

How do Mendel's experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive?

12.

Rohit focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down the position of the candle , screen and lens as under :

Position of candle = 26.0 cm

Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm

Position of screen = 74.0 cm

i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?

ii) Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the lens at a position of 38 cm?

iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in case (ii) as said above?

13.

"pH has a great importance in our daily life" explain by giving three examples.

A compound which is prepared from gypsum has the property of hardening when mixed with a proper quantity of water. Identify the compound and write its chemical formula. Write the chemical equation for its preparation. Mention any one use of the compound.

14.

Why are fossils considered important in the study of evolution? Explain two ways by which age of fossils can be estimated.

15.

Our government launches campaigns to provide information about AIDS prevention, testing and treatment by putting posters, conducting radio shows and using other agencies of advertisements.

a) To which category of diseases AIDS belong? Name its causative organism.

b) Which kind of value is government trying to develop in the citizens by conducting the above kind of programs.

16.

With the help of a labelled circuit diagram wire describe an activity to illustrate the pattern of the magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying long conducting wire .

i) Name the rule that is used to find the direction of magnetic field associated with a current carrying conductor.

ii) Is there a similar magnetic field produced around a thin beam of moving (a) alpha particles and (b) neutrons? Justify your answer.

17.

You are given balls and stick model of six carbon atoms and fourteen hydrogen atoms and sufficient number of sticks. In how many ways one can join the models of six carbon atoms and fourteen hydrogen atoms to form different molecules of C6H14.

Draw the structural formulae of all the possible isomers of the compound with the molecular formula C3H6O and also give their electron dot structures.

18.

a) i) Draw a neat diagram of human brain and

ii) Label Medulla and Cerebellum

iii) Write the functions of the above mentioned parts b) "Both overproduction and underproduction of Growth hormone leads to disorders in the body." Explain

19.

Noopur needs a lens of power -4.5D for correction of her vision.

a) What kind of defect in vision is she suffering from?

b) What is the focal length and nature of the corrective lens?

c) Draw ray diagrams showing the (a) defected eye and (b) correction for this defect.

d) What are the causes of this defect?

20.

a) What is reactivity series? How does the reactivity series of metals help in predicting the relative activities of various metals?

b) Suggest different chemical processes used for obtaining a metal from its oxides for metals in the middle of the reactivity series and metals towards the top of the reactivity series. Support your answer with one example each.

21.

a) "Improvements in our lifestyle have resulted in greater amounts of waste generation." Give two examples to support the given statement. Suggest one change that we can incorporate in our lifestyle in order to reduce nonbiodegradable waste.

b) The following organisms form a food chain. Insect, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog Which of these will have highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon.

a) What do you understand by "Watershed Management"? List any two advantages of watershed management.

b) "Human beings occupy the top level in any food chain." What are the consequences of this on our body?

SECTION – B

22.

What do you observe when you drop a few drops of acetic acid to a test tube containing:

a) Phenolphthalein b) Universal indicator

c) distilled water d) sodium hydrogen carbonate

23.

Riya performs two set of experiments to study the length of the foam formed which are as follows:

Set I: she takes 10 ml of distilled water in test tube "A" and adds 5-6 drops of liquid soap in it and shakes the test tube vigorously.

Set II: she takes 10 ml of distilled water in a test tube "A" and adds 5-6 drops of liquid soap with half spoonful of CaSO4 in it and shakes the test tube. Write your observation and reason.

24.

A student observed a permanent slide showing asexual reproduction in yeast. Draw diagrams of the observations he must have made from the slide. Name the process also.

25.

A student conducted an experiment to show CO2 is released during respiration. List two precautions that he/she must take for obtaining correct observations.

26.

The values of current I flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference V across the resistor are given below:

I (ampere)	0.5	1.0	2.0	3.0	4.0
V (volt)	1.6	3.4	6.7	10.2	13.2

Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the resistance of the resistor.

In a given ammeter, a student sees that needle indicates 17 divisions in ammeter while performing an experiment to verify Ohm's law. If ammeter has 10 divisions between 0 and 0.5A, then what is the value corresponding to 17 divisions?

27.

Draw a path of light ray passing through a prism. Label angle of incidence and angle of deviation in the ray diagram.