Wednesday, May 30, 2018

CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : Physics

CBSE PORTAL : (Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : Physics

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : Physics

Posted: 30 May 2018 01:08 AM PDT

(Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : Physics

Sample Question Paper (PHYSICS)
CLASS-XII (2017-18)

Time Allowed: 3Hours

Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory. There are 26 questions in all.
2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
3. Section A contains five questions of one mark each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains twelve questions of three marks each, Section D contains one value based question of four marks and Section E contains three questions of five marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of two marks, one question of three marks and all the three questions of five marks weightage. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary.

Section – A

1. In the given figure, charge +Q is placed at the centre of a dotted circle. Work done in taking another charge +q from A to B is W1 and from B to C is W2. Which one of the following is correct: W1 > W2, W1=W2 and W1 < W2?


2. Plot a graph showing the variation of current ‘I’ versus resistance ‘R’, connected to a cell of emf E and internal resistance ‘r’.
3. State the factors on which the refractive index of a material medium for a given wavelength depends.
4. Sketch the emergent wavefront.


5. In the wave picture of light, intensity of light is determined by square of the amplitude of wave. What determines the intensity of light in the photon picture of light?

Section – B

6. (a)An alternating voltage E = Eo sinωt is applied to a circuit containing a resistor R connected in series with a black box. The current in the circuit is found to be I = Io sin (ωt + π/4).

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NCERT Hindi Question Paper (Class - 10)

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NCERT  Hindi Question Paper (Class-10)


Chapter 1 Soor Das ke Pad


1- गोपियों द्वारा उद्धव को भाग्यवान कहने में क्या व्यंग्य निहित है?

2- उद्धव के व्यवहार की तुलना किस-किस से की गई है?

3- गोपियों ने किन-किन उदाहरणों के माध्यम से उद्धव को उलाहने दिए हैं?

4- उद्धव द्वारा दिए गए योग के संदेश ने गोपियों की विरहाग्नि में घी का काम कैसे किया?

5- ‘मरजादा न लही’ के माध्यम से कौन-सी मर्यादा न रहने की बात की जा रही है?

6- कृष्ण के प्रति अपने अनन्य प्रेम को गोपियों ने किस प्रकार अभिव्यक्त किया है?

7- गोपियों ने उद्धव से योग की शिक्षा कैसे लोगों को देने की बात कही है?

8- प्रस्तुत पदों के आधार पर गोपियों का योग-साधना के प्रति दृष्टिकोण स्पष्ट करें।

9- गोपियों के अनुसार राजा का धर्म क्या होना चाहिए?

10- गोपियों को कृष्ण में ऐसे कौन-से परिवर्तन दिखाई दिए जिनके कारण वे अपना मन वापस पा लेने की बात कहती हैं?

11- गोपियों ने अपने वाव्फ़चातुर्य के आधार पर ज्ञानी उद्धव को परास्त कर दिया, उनके वाव्फ़चातुर्य की विशेषताएँ लिखिए?

12- संकलित पदों को ध्यान में रखते हुए सूर के भ्रमरगीत की मुख्य विशेषताएँ बताइए? रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

13- गोपियों ने उद्धव के सामने तरह-तरह के तर्क दिए हैं, आप अपनी कल्पना से और तर्क दीजिए।

14- उद्धव ज्ञानी थे, नीति की बातें जानते थे_ गोपियों के पास ऐसी कौन-सी शक्ति थी जो उनके वाव्फ़चातुर्य में मुखरित हो उठी?

15- गोपियों ने यह क्यों कहा कि हरि अब राजनीति पढ़ आए हैं? क्या आपको गोपियों के इस कथन का विस्तार समकालीन राजनीति में नजर आता है,
स्पष्ट कीजिए। पाठेतर सक्रियता प्रस्तुत पदों की सबसे बड़ी विशेषता है गोपियों की ‘वाग्विदग्धता’। आपने ऐसे और चरित्रें के बारे में पढ़ा या सुना होगा जिन्होंने अपने वाव्फ़चातुर्य के आधार पर अपनी एक विशिष्ट पहचान बनाई_ जैसेμबीरबल, तेनालीराम, गोपालभाँड, मुल्ला नसीरुद्दीन आदि। अपने किसी मनपसंद चरित्र के कुछ किस्से संकलित कर एक अलबम तैयार करें। सूर रचित अपने प्रिय पदों को लय व ताल के साथ गाएँ।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

13- गोपियों ने उद्धव के सामने तरह-तरह के तर्क दिए हैं, आप अपनी कल्पना से और तर्क दीजिए।

14- उद्धव ज्ञानी थे, नीति की बातें जानते थे_ गोपियों के पास ऐसी कौन-सी शक्ति थी जो उनके वाव्फ़चातुर्य में मुखरित हो उठी?

15- गोपियों ने यह क्यों कहा कि हरि अब राजनीति पढ़ आए हैं? क्या आपको गोपियों के इस कथन का विस्तार समकालीन राजनीति में नजर आता है, स्पष्ट कीजिए।


Chapter 2 Ram Lakshman Parshuram Samvad


राम-लक्ष्मण-परशुराम संवाद

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- परशुराम के क्रोध करने पर लक्ष्मण ने धनुष के टूट जाने के लिए कौन-कौन से तर्क दिए?

2- परशुराम के क्रोध करने पर राम और लक्ष्मण की जो प्रतिक्रियाएँ हुईं उनके आधार पर दोनों के स्वभाव की विशेषताएँ अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

3- लक्ष्मण और परशुराम के संवाद का जो अंश आपको सबसे अच्छा लगा उसे अपने शब्दों में संवाद शैली में लिखिए।

4- परशुराम ने अपने विषय में सभा में क्या-क्या कहा, निम्न पद्यांश के आधार पर लिखिएμ
बाल ब्रह्मचारी अति कोही।
भुजबल भूमि भूप बिनु कीन्ही।
सहसबाहुभुज छेदनिहारा।
बिस्वबिदित क्षत्रियकुल द्रोही।।
बिपुल बार महिदेवन्ह दीन्ही।।
परसु बिलोकु महीपकुमारा।।
मातु पितहि जनि सोचबस करसि महीसकिसोर।
गर्भन्ह के अर्भक दलन परसु मोर अति घोर।।

5- लक्ष्मण ने वीर योद्धा की क्या-क्या विशेषताएँ बताईं?

6- साहस और शक्ति के साथ विनम्रता हो तो बेहतर है। इस कथन पर अपने विचार लिखिए।

7- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) बिहसि लखनु बोले मृदु बानी। अहो मुनीसु महाभट मानी।।
पुनि पुनि मोहि देखाव कुठारू। चहत उड़ावन फूंँकि पहारू।।

(ख) इहाँ कुम्हड़बतिया कोउ नाहीं। जे तरजनी देखि मरि जाहीं।।
देखि कुठारु सरासन बाना। मैं कछु कहा सहित अभिमाना।।

(ग) गाधिसूनु कह हृदय हसि मुनिहि हरियरे सूझ।
अयमय खाँड़ न ऊखमय अजहुँ न बूझ अबूझ।।

8- पाठ के आधार पर तुलसी के भाषा सौंदर्य पर दस पंक्तियाँ लिखिए।

9- इस पूरे प्रसंग में व्यंग्य का अनूठा सौंदर्य है। उदाहरण के साथ स्पष्ट कीजिए।

10- निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों में प्रयुक्त अलंकार पहचान कर लिखिएμ
(क) बालकु बोलि बधौं नहि तोही।

(ख) कोटि कुलिस सम बचनु तुम्हारा।

(ग) तुम्ह तौ कालु हाँक जनु लावा।
बार बार मोहि लागि बोलावा।।

(घ) लखन उतर आहुति सरिस भृगुबरकोपु कृसानु।
बढ़त देखि जल सम बचन बोले रघुकुलभानु।।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

11- फ्सामाजिक जीवन में क्रोध की जरूरत बराबर पड़ती है। यदि क्रोध न हो तो मनुष्य दूसरे के द्वारा पहुँचाए जाने वाले बहुत से कष्टों की चिर-निवृत्ति का उपाय ही न कर सके।य्
आचार्य रामचंद्र शुक्ल जी का यह कथन इस बात की पुष्टि करता है कि क्रोध हमेशा नकारात्मक भाव तुलसीदास


Chapter 3 Dev ke Saviaya aur Kavitt


प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- कवि ने ‘श्रीब्रजदूलह’ किसके लिए प्रयु क्त किया है और उन्हें संसार रूपी मंदिर का दीपक क्यों कहा है?

2- पहले सवैये में से उन पंक्तियों को छाँटकर लिखिए जिनमें अनुप्रास और रूपक अलंकार का प्रयोग हुआ है?

3- निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों का काव्य-सौंदर्य स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
पाँयनि नूपुर मंजु बजैं, कटि किकिनि कै धुनि की मधुराई।
साँवरे अंग लसै पट पीत, हिये हुलसै बनमाल सुहाई।

4- दूसरे कवित्त के आधार पर स्पष्ट करें कि ऋतुराज वसंत के बाल-रूप का वर्णन परंपरागत वसंत वर्णन से किस प्रकार भिन्न है।

5- ‘प्रातहि जगावत गुलाब चटकारी दै’μ इस पंक्ति का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए।

6- चाँदनी रात की सुंदरता को कवि ने किन-किन रूपों में देखा है?

7- ‘प्यारी राधिका को प्रतिबिब सो लगत चंद’μइस पंक्ति का भाव स्पष्ट करते हुए बताएँ कि इसमें कौन-सा अलंकार है?

8- तीसरे कवित्त के आधार पर बताइए कि कवि ने चाँदनी रात की उज्ज्वलता का वर्णन करने के लिए किन-किन उपमानों का प्रयोग किया है?

9- पठित कविताओं के आधार पर कवि देव की काव्यगत विशेषताएँ बताइए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

10- आप अपने घर की छत से पूर्णिमा की रात देखिए तथा उसके सौंदर्य को अपनी कलम से शब्दबद्ध कीजिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

भारतीय ऋतु चक्र में छह ऋतुएँ मानी गई हैं, वे कौन-कौन सी हैं?
‘ग्लोबल वार्मिंग’ के कारण ऋतुओं में क्या परिवर्तन आ रहे हैं? इस समस्या से निपटने के लिए
आपकी क्या भूमिका हो सकती है?


Chapter 4 Jai Sankar Prasad Atmkadya


जयशंकर प्रसाद आत्मकथ्य

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- कवि आत्मकथा लिखने से क्यों बचना चाहता है?

2- आत्मकथा सुनाने के संदर्भ में ‘अभी समय भी नहीं’ कवि ऐसा क्यों कहता है?

3- स्मृति को ‘पाथेय’ बनाने से कवि का क्या आशय है?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) मिला कहाँ वह सुख जिसका मैं स्वप्न देखकर जाग गया।
आलिगन में आते-आते मुसक्या कर जो भाग गया।

(ख) जिसके अरुण कपोलों की मतवाली सुंदर छाया में।
अनुरागिनी उषा लेती थी निज सुहाग मधुमाया में।

5- ‘उज्ज्वल गाथा कैसे गाऊँ, मधुर चाँदनी रातों की’μकथन के माध्यम से कवि क्या कहना चाहता है?

6- ‘आत्मकथ्य’ कविता की काव्यभाषा की विशेषताएँ उदाहरण सहित लिखिए।

7- कवि ने जो सुख का स्वप्न देखा था उसे कविता में किस रूप में अभिव्यक्त किया है?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- इस कविता के माध्यम से प्रसाद जी के व्यक्तित्व की जो झलक मिलती है, उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

9- आप किन व्यक्तियों की आत्मकथा पढ़ना चाहेंगे और क्यों?

10- कोई भी अपनी आत्मकथा लिख सकता है। उसके लिए विशिष्ट या बड़ा होना जरूरी नहीं। हरियाणा राज्य के गुड़गाँव में घरेलू सहायिका के रूप में काम करने वाली बेबी हालदार की आत्मकथा फ्आलो अांधारिय् बहुतों के द्वारा सराही गई। आत्मकथात्मक शैली में अपने बारे में कुछ लिखिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

किसी भी चर्चित व्यक्ति का अपनी निजता को सार्वजनिक करना या दूसरों का उनसे ऐसी अपेक्षा करना सही हैμइस विषय के पक्ष-विपक्ष में कक्षा में चर्चा कीजिए।
बिना ईमानदारी और साहस के आत्मकथा नहीं लिखी जा सकती। गांधी जी की आत्मकथा ‘सत्य के प्रयोग’ पढ़कर पता लगाइए कि उसकी क्या-क्या विशेषताएँ हैं?


Chapter 5 Suryakant Tripathi Nirala Utsah


उत्साह

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- कवि बादल से फुहार, रिमझिम या बरसने के स्थान पर ‘गरजने’ के लिए कहता है, क्यों?

2- कविता का शीर्षक उत्साह क्यों रखा गया है?

3- कविता में बादल किन-किन अर्थों की ओर संकेत करता है?

4- शब्दों का ऐसा प्रयोग जिससे कविता के किसी खास भाव या दृश्य में ध्वन्यात्मक प्रभाव पैदा हो, नाद-सौंदर्य कहलाता है। उत्साह कविता में ऐसे कौन-से शब्द हैं जिनमें नाद-सौंदर्य मौजूद है, छाँटकर लिखें।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

5- जैसे बादल उमड़-घुमड़कर बारिश करते हैं वैसे ही कवि के अंतर्मन में भी भावों के बादल उमड़-घुमड़कर कविता के रूप में अभिव्यक्त होते हैं। ऐसे ही किसी प्राकृतिक सौंदर्य को देखकर अपने उमड़ते भावों को कविता में उतारिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

बादलों पर अनेक कविताएँ हैं। कुछ कविताओं का संकलन करें और उनका चित्रंकन भी कीजिए। अट नहीं रही है

1- छायावाद की एक खास विशेषता है अंतर्मन के भावों का बाहर की दुनिया से सामंजस्य बिठाना। कविता की किन पंक्तियों को पढ़कर यह धारणा पुष्ट होती है? लिखिए।

2- कवि की आँख फागुन की सुंदरता से क्यों नहीं हट रही है?

3- प्रस्तुत कविता में कवि ने प्रकृति की व्यापकता का वर्णन किन रूपों में किया है?

4- फागुन में ऐसा क्या होता है जो बाकी ऋतुओं से भिन्न होता है?

5- इन कविताओं के आधार पर निराला के काव्य-शिल्प की विशेषताएँ लिखिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

6- होली के आसपास प्रकृति में जो परिवर्तन दिखाई देते हैं, उन्हें लिखिए।


Chapter 6 Yah Dandurit Muskan


यह दंतुरित मुसकान

यह दंतुरित मुसकान

1- बच्चे की दंतुरित मुसकान का कवि के मन पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?

2- बच्चे की मुसकान और एक बड़े व्यक्ति की मुसकान में क्या अंतर है?

3- कवि ने बच्चे की मुसकान के सौंदर्य को किन-किन बिबों के माध्यम से व्यक्त किया है?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) छोड़कर तालाब मेरी झाेंपड़ी में खिल रहे जलजात।
(ख) छू गया तुमसे कि झरने लग पड़े शेफालिका के फूल बाँस था कि बबूल?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

5- मुसकान और क्रोध भिन्न-भिन्न भाव हैं। इनकी उपस्थिति से बने वातावरण की भिन्नता का चित्रण कीजिए।

6- दंतुरित मुसकान से बच्चे की उम्र का अनुमान लगाइए और तर्क सहित उत्तर दीजिए।

7- बच्चे से कवि की मुलाकात का जो शब्द-चित्र उपस्थित हुआ है उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

आप जब भी किसी बच्चे से पहली बार मिलें तो उसके हाव-भाव, व्यवहार आदि को सूक्ष्मता से देखिए और उस अनुभव को कविता या अनुच्छेद के रूप में लिखिए।

1- कवि के अनुसार फसल क्या है?
2- कविता में फसल उपजाने के लिए आवश्यक तत्वों की बात कही गई है। वे आवश्यक तत्व कौन-कौन से हैं?
3- फसल को ‘हाथों के स्पर्श की गरिमा’ और ‘महिमा’ कहकर कवि क्या व्यक्त करना चाहता है?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) रूपांतर है सूरज की किरणों का सिमटा हुआ संकोच है हवा की थिरकन का!
रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

5- कवि ने फसल को हजार-हजार खेतों की मि‘ी का गुण-धर्म कहा हैμ
(क) मि‘ी के गुण-धर्म को आप किस तरह परिभाषित करेंगे?
(ख) वर्तमान जीवन शैली मि‘ी के गुण-धर्म को किस-किस तरह प्रभावित करती है?
(ग) मि‘ी द्वारा अपना गुण-धर्म छोड़ने की स्थिति में क्या किसी भी प्रकार के जीवन की कल्पना की जा सकती है?
(घ) मि‘ी के गुण-धर्म को पोषित करने में हमारी क्या भूमिका हो सकती है?

पाठेतर सक्रियता

इलेक्ट्रॉनिक एवं प्रिट मीडिया द्वारा आपने किसानों की स्थिति के बारे में बहुत कुछ सुना, देखा और पढ़ा होगा। एक सुदृढ़ कृषि-व्यवस्था के लिए आप अपने सुझाव देते हुए अखबार के संपादक को पत्र लिखिए। फसलों के उत्पादन में महिलाओं के योगदान को हमारी अर्थव्यवस्था में महत्त्व क्यों नहीं दिया जाता है? इस बारे में कक्षा में चर्चा कीजिए।


Chapter 7 Chaya Mat Chhoona


छाया मत छूना

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- कवि ने कठिन यथार्थ के पूजन की बात क्यों कही है?

2- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
प्रभुता का शरण-बिब केवल मृगतृष्णा है,
हर चंद्रिका में छिपी एक रात कृष्णा है।

3- ‘छाया’ शब्द यहाँ किस संदर्भ में प्रयुक्त हुआ है? कवि ने उसे छूने के लिए मना क्यों किया है?

4- कविता में विशेषण के प्रयोग से शब्दों के अर्थ में विशेष प्रभाव पड़ता है, जैसे कठिन यथार्थ। कविता में आए ऐसे अन्य उदाहरण छाँटकर लिखिए और यह भी लिखिए कि इससे शब्दों के अर्थ में क्या विशिष्टता पैदा हुई?

5- ‘मृगतृष्णा’ किसे कहते हैं, कविता में इसका प्रयोग किस अर्थ में हुआ है?

6- ‘बीती ताहि बिसार दे आगे की सुधि ले’ यह भाव कविता की किस पंक्ति में झलकता है?

7- कविता में व्यक्त दुख के कारणों को स्पष्ट कीजिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- ‘जीवन में हैं सुरंग सुधियाँ सुहावनी’, से कवि का अभिप्राय जीवन की मधुर स्मृतियों से है। आपने अपने जीवन की कौन-कौन सी स्मृतियाँ संजो रखी हैं?

9- ‘क्या हुआ जो खिला फूल रस-बसंत जाने पर?’ कवि का मानना है कि समय बीत जाने पर भी उपलब्धि मनुष्य को आनंद देती है। क्या आप ऐसा मानते हैं? तर्क सहित लिखिए।

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- कवि ने कठिन यथार्थ के पूजन की बात क्यों कही है?

2- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
प्रभुता का शरण-बिब केवल मृगतृष्णा है,
हर चंद्रिका में छिपी एक रात कृष्णा है।

3- ‘छाया’ शब्द यहाँ किस संदर्भ में प्रयुक्त हुआ है? कवि ने उसे छूने के लिए मना क्यों किया है?

4- कविता में विशेषण के प्रयोग से शब्दों के अर्थ में विशेष प्रभाव पड़ता है, जैसे कठिन यथार्थ। कविता में आए ऐसे अन्य उदाहरण छाँटकर लिखिए और यह भी लिखिए कि इससे शब्दों के अर्थ में क्या विशिष्टता पैदा हुई?

5- ‘मृगतृष्णा’ किसे कहते हैं, कविता में इसका प्रयोग किस अर्थ में हुआ है?

6- ‘बीती ताहि बिसार दे आगे की सुधि ले’ यह भाव कविता की किस पंक्ति में झलकता है?

7- कविता में व्यक्त दुख के कारणों को स्पष्ट कीजिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- ‘जीवन में हैं सुरंग सुधियाँ सुहावनी’, से कवि का अभिप्राय जीवन की मधुर स्मृतियों से है। आपने अपने जीवन की कौन-कौन सी स्मृतियाँ संजो रखी हैं?

9- ‘क्या हुआ जो खिला फूल रस-बसंत जाने पर?’ कवि का मानना है कि समय बीत जाने पर भी उपलब्धि मनुष्य को आनंद देती है। क्या आप ऐसा मानते हैं? तर्क सहित लिखिए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

आप गर्मी की चिलचिलाती धूप में कभी सप् ़ शफ़र करें तो दूर सड़क पर आपको पानी जैसा दिखाई देगा पर पास पहुँचने पर वहाँ कुछ नहीं होता। अपने जीवन में भी कभी-कभी हम सोचते कुछ हैं, दिखता कुछ है लेकिन वास्तविकता कुछ और होती है। आपके जीवन में घटे ऐसे किसी अनुभव को अपने प्रिय मित्र को पत्र लिखकर अभिव्यक्त कीजिए।

कवि गिरिजाकुमार माथुर की ‘पंद्रह अगस्त’ कविता खोजकर पढ़िए और उस पर चर्चा कीजिए।

आप गर्मी की चिलचिलाती धूप में कभी सप् ़ शफ़र करें तो दूर सड़क पर आपको पानी जैसा दिखाई देगा पर पास पहुँचने पर वहाँ कुछ नहीं होता। अपने जीवन में भी कभी-कभी हम सोचते कुछ हैं, दिखता कुछ है लेकिन वास्तविकता कुछ और होती है। आपके जीवन में घटे ऐसे किसी अनुभव को अपने प्रिय मित्र को पत्र लिखकर अभिव्यक्त कीजिए। कवि गिरिजाकुमार माथुर की ‘पंद्रह अगस्त’ कविता खोजकर पढ़िए और उस पर चर्चा कीजिए।


Chapter 8 kanyadan


कन्यादान

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- आपके विचार से माँ ने ऐसा क्यों कहा कि लड़की होना पर लड़की जैसी मत दिखाई देना?

2- ‘आग रोटियाँ सेंकने के लिए है जलने के लिए नहीं’
(क) इन पंक्तियों में समाज में स्त्री की किस स्थिति की ओर संकेत किया गया है?
(ख) माँ ने बेटी को सचेत करना क्यों जरूरी समझा?

3- ‘पाठिका थी वह धुँधले प्रकाश की कुछ तुकों और कुछ लयबद्ध पंक्तियों की’ इन पंक्तियों को पढ़कर लड़की की जो छवि आपके सामने उभरकर आ रही है उसे शब्दबद्ध कीजिए।

4- माँ को अपनी बेटी ‘अंतिम पूँजी’ क्यों लग रही थी?

5- माँ ने बेटी को क्या-क्या सीख दी?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

6- आपकी दृष्टि में कन्या के साथ दान की बात करना कहाँ तक उचित है?

पाठेतर सक्रियता

‘स्त्री को सौंदर्य का प्रतिमान बना दिया जाना ही उसका बंधन बन जाता है’μइस विषय पर कक्षा में चर्चा कीजिए।

यहाँ अफगानी कवयित्री मीना किश्वर कमाल की कविता की कुछ पंक्तियाँ दी जा रही हैं। क्या आपको कन्यादान कविता से इसका कोई संबंध दिखाई देता है?


Chapter 9 Sangatkar


संगतकार

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- संगतकार के माध्यम से कवि किस प्रकार के व्यक्तियों की ओर संकेत करना चाह रहा है?

2- संगतकार जैसे व्यक्ति संगीत के अलावा और किन-किन क्षेत्रें में दिखाई देते हैं?

3- संगतकार किन-किन रूपों में मुख्य गायक-गायिकाओं की मदद करते हैं?

4- भाव स्पष्ट कीजिएμ और उसकी आवाज में जो एक हिचक साप़् शफ़ सुनाई देती है या अपने स्वर को ऊँचा न उठाने की जो कोशिश है उसे विफलता नहीं उसकी मनुष्यता समझा जाना चाहिए।

5- किसी भी क्षेत्र में प्रसिद्धि पाने वाले लोगों को अनेक लोग तरह-तरह से अपना योगदान देते हैं। कोई एक उदाहरण देकर इस कथन पर अपने विचार लिखिए।

6- कभी-कभी तारसप्तक की ऊँचाई पर पहुँचकर मुख्य गायक का स्वर बिखरता नजर आता है उस समय संगतकार उसे बिखरने से बचा लेता है। इस कथन के आलोक में संगतकार की विशेष भूमिका को स्पष्ट कीजिए।

7- सफलता के चरम शिखर पर पहुँचने के दौरान यदि व्यक्ति लड़खड़ाता है तब उसे सहयोगी किस तरह सँभालते हैं?\

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- कल्पना कीजिए कि आपको किसी संगीत या नृत्य समारोह का कार्यक्रम प्रस्तुत करना है लेकिन आपके सहयोगी कलाकार किसी कारणवश नहीं पहुँच पाएँμ

(क) ऐसे में अपनी स्थिति का वर्णन कीजिए।
(ख) ऐसी परिस्थिति का आप कैसे सामना करेंगे?

9- आपके विद्यालय में मनाए जाने वाले सांस्कृतिक समारोह में मंच के पीछे काम करने वाले सहयोगियों की भूमिका पर एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।

10- किसी भी क्षेत्र में संगतकार की पंक्ति वाले लोग प्रतिभावान होते हुए भी मुख्य या शीर्ष स्थान पर क्यों नहीं पहुँच पाते होंगे?

पाठेतर सक्रियता

आप पि़् शफ़ल्में तो देखते ही होंगे। अपनी पसंद की किसी एक पि़्शफ़ल्म के आधार पर लिखिए कि उस पि़् फ़ल्म की सफलता में अभिनय करने वाल कलाकारों के अतिरिक्त और किन-किन लोगों का योेेगदान रहा।

आपके विद्यालय में किसी प्रसिद्ध गायिका की गीत प्रस्तुति का आयोजन हैμ
(क) इस संबंध पर सूचना प‘ के लिए एक नोटिस तैयार कीजिए।
(ख) गायिका व उसके संगतकारों का परिचय देने के लिए आलेख (स्क्रिप्ट) तैयार कीजिए।


Chapter 10 Neta Ji ka Chasma


नेताजी का चश्मा

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- सेनानी न होते हुए भी चश्मेवाले को लोग कैप्टन क्यों कहते थे?

2- हालदार साहब ने ड्राइवर को पहले चौराहे पर गाड़ी रोकने के लिए मना किया था लेकिन बाद में तुरंत रोकने को कहाμ
(क) हालदार साहब पहले मायूस क्यों हो गए थे?
(ख) मूर्ति पर सरकंडे का चश्मा क्या उम्मीद जगाता है?
(ग) हालदार साहब इतनी-सी बात पर भावुक क्यों हो उठे?

3- आशय स्पष्ट कीजिएμ

फ्बार-बार सोचते, क्या होगा उस कौम का जो अपने देश की खातिर घर-गृहस्थी-जवानी-जिदगी सब कुछ होम देनेवालों पर भी हँसती है और अपने लिए बिकने के मौके ढूँढ़ती है।य्

4- पानवाले का एक रेखाचित्र प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

5- फ्वो लँगड़ा क्या जाएगा प् ़ शफ़ौज में। पागल है पागल!य् कैप्टन के प्रति पानवाले की इस टिप्पणी पर अपनी प्रतिक्रिया लिखिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

6- निम्नलिखित वाक्य पात्रें की कौन-सी विशेषता की ओर संकेत करते हैंμ
(क) हालदार साहब हमेशा चौराहे पर रफ़कते और नेताजी को निहारते।
(ख) पानवाला उदास हो गया। उसने पीछे मुड़कर मुँह का पान नीचे थूका और सिर झुकाकर अपनी धोती के सिरे से आँखें पोंछता हुआ बोलाμसाहब! कैप्टन मर गया।
(ग) कैप्टन बार-बार मूर्ति पर चश्मा लगा देता था।

7- जब तक हालदार साहब ने कैप्टन को साक्षात् देखा नहीं था तब तक उनके मानस पटल पर उसका कौन-सा चित्र रहा होगा, अपनी कल्पना से लिखिए।

8- कस्बों, शहरों, महानगरों के चौराहों पर किसी न किसी क्षेत्र के प्रसिद्ध व्यक्ति की मूर्ति लगाने का प्रचलन-सा हो गया हैμ
(क) इस तरह की मूर्ति लगाने के क्या उद्देश्य हो सकते हैं?
(ख) आप अपने इलाके के चौराहे पर किस व्यक्ति की मूर्ति स्थापित करवाना चाहेंगे और क्यों?
(ग) उस मूर्ति के प्रति आपके एवं दूसरे लोगों के क्या उत्तरदायित्व होने चाहिए?

9- सीमा पर तैनात प़् शफ़ौजी ही देश-प्रेम का परिचय नहीं देते। हम सभी अपने दैनिक कार्यों में किसी न किसी रूप में देश-प्रेम प्रकट करते हैं_ जैसेμसार्वजनिक संपत्ति को नुकसान न पहुँचाना, पर्यावरण संरक्षण आदि।

अपने जीवन-जगत से जुड़े ऐसे और कार्यों का उल्लेख कीजिए और उन पर अमल भी कीजिए।

10- निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों में स्थानीय बोली का प्रभाव स्पष्ट दिखाई देता है, आप इन पंक्तियों को मानक हिदी में लिखिएμ
कोई गिराक आ गया समझो। उसको चौड़े चौखट चाहिए। तो कैप्टन किदर से लाएगा? तो उसको मूर्तिवाला दे दिया। उदर दूसरा बिठा दिया।

11- ‘भई खूब! क्या आइडिया है।’ इस वाक्य को ध्यान में रखते हुए बताइए कि एक भाषा में दूसरी भाषा के शब्दों के आने से क्या लाभ होते हैं?

भाषा-अध्ययन

12- निम्नलिखित वाक्यों से निपात छाँटिए और उनसे नए वाक्य बनाइएμ
(क) नगरपालिका थी तो कुछ न कुछ करती भी रहती थी।
(ख) किसी स्थानीय कलाकार को ही अवसर देने का निर्णय किया गया होगा।
(ग) यानी चश्मा तो था लेकिन संगमरमर का नहीं था।
(घ) हालदार साहब अब भी नहीं समझ पाए।
(घ) दो साल तक हालदार साहब अपने काम के सिलसिले में उस कस्बे से गुजरते रहे।


Chapter 11 Bal Gobin Bhagat


बालगोबिन भगत

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- खेतीबारी से जुड़े गृहस्थ बालगोबिन भगत अपनी किन चारित्रिक विशेषताओं के कारण साधु कहलाते थे?

2- भगत की पुत्रवधू उन्हें अकेले क्यों नहीं छोड़ना चाहती थी?

3- भगत ने अपने बेटे की मृत्यु पर अपनी भावनाएँ किस तरह व्यक्त कीं?

4- भगत के व्यक्तित्व और उनकी वेशभूषा का अपने शब्दों में चित्र प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

5- बालगोबिन भगत की दिनचर्या लोगों के अचरज का कारण क्यों थी?

6- पाठ के आधार पर बालगोबिन भगत के मधुर गायन की विशेषताएँ लिखिए।

7- कुछ मार्मिक प्रसंगों के आधार पर यह दिखाई देता है कि बालगोबिन भगत प्रचलित सामाजिक मान्यताओं को नहीं मानते थे। पाठ के आधार पर उन प्रसंगों का उल्लेख कीजिए।

8- धान की रोपाई के समय समूचे माहौल को भगत की स्वर लहरियाँ किस तरह चमत्कृत कर देती थीं? उस माहौल का शब्द-चित्र प्रस्तुत कीजिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

9- पाठ के आधार पर बताएँ कि बालगोबिन भगत की कबीर पर श्रद्धा किन-किन रूपों में प्रकट हुई है?

10- आपकी दृष्टि में भगत की कबीर पर अगाध श्रद्धा के क्या कारण रहे होंगे?

11- गाँव का सामाजिक-सांस्कृतिक परिवेश आषाढ़ चढ़ते ही उल्लास से क्यों भर जाता है?

12- फ्ऊपर की तसवीर से यह नहीं माना जाए कि बालगोबिन भगत साधु थे।य् क्या ‘साधु’ की पहचान पहनावे के आधार पर की जानी चाहिए? आप किन आधारों पर यह सुनिश्चित करेंगे कि अमुक व्यक्ति ‘साधु’ है?

13- मोह और प्रेम में अंतर होता है। भगत के जीवन की किस घटना के आधार पर इस कथन का सच सिद्ध करेंगे?

भाषा-अध्ययन

14- इस पाठ में आए कोई दस क्रियाविशेषण छाँटकर लिखिए और उनके भेद भी बताइए।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

पाठ में ऋतुओं के बहुत ही सुंदर शब्द-चित्र उकेरे गए हैं। बदलते हुए मौसम को दर्शाते हुए चित्र/प़् फ़ोटो का संग्रह कर एक अलबम तैयार कीजिए।


Chapter 12 Lakhnavi Andaj


लखनवी अंदाज

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- लेखक को नवाब साहब के किन हाव-भावों से महसूस हुआ कि वे उनसे बातचीत करने के लिए तनिक भी उत्सुक नहीं हैं?

2- नवाब साहब ने बहुत ही यत्न से खीरा काटा, नमक-मिर्च बुरका, अंततः सूँघकर ही खिड़की से बाहर फेंक दिया। उन्होंने ऐसा क्यों किया होगा? उनका ऐसा करना उनके कैसे स्वभाव को इंगित करता है?

3- बिना विचार, घटना और पात्रें के भी क्या कहानी लिखी जा सकती है। यशपाल के इस विचार से आप कहाँ तक सहमत हैं?

4- आप इस निबंध को और क्या नाम देना चाहेंगे?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

5- (क) नवाब साहब द्वारा खीरा खाने की तैयारी करने का एक चित्र प्रस्तुत किया गया है। इस पूरी प्रक्रिया को अपने शब्दों में व्यक्त कीजिए।
(ख) किन-किन चीजों का रसास्वादन करने के लिए आप किस प्रकार की तैयारी करते हैं?

6- खीरे के संबंध में नवाब साहब के व्यवहार को उनकी सनक कहा जा सकता है। आपने नवाबों की और भी सनकों और शौक के बारे में पढ़ा-सुना होगा। किसी एक के बारे में लिखिए।

7- क्या सनक का कोई सकारात्मक रूप हो सकता है? यदि हाँ तो ऐसी सनकों का उल्लेख कीजिए।

भाषा-अध्ययन

8- निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में से क्रियापद छाँटकर क्रिया-भेद भी लिखिएμ
(क) एक सप् ़ शफ़ेदपोश सज्जन बहुत सुविधा से पालथी मारे बैठे थे।
(ख) नवाब साहब ने संगति के लिए उत्साह नहीं दिखाया।
(ग) ठाली बैठे, कल्पना करते रहने की पुरानी आदत है।
(घ) अकेले सप् ़ शफ़र का वक्त काटने के लिए ही खीरे खरीदे होंगे।
(घ) दोनों खीरों के सिर काटे और उन्हें गोदकर झाग निकाला।
(च) नवाब साहब ने सतृष्ण आँखों से नमक-मिर्च के संयोग से चमकती खीरे की फाँकों की ओर देखा।
(छ) नवाब साहब खीरे की तैयारी और इस्तेमाल से थककर लेट गए।
(ज) जेब से चाकू निकाला।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

‘किबला शौक फरमाएँ’, ‘आदाब-अर्ज---शौक फरमाएँगे’ जैसे कथन शिष्टाचार से जुड़े हैं। अपनी मातृभाषा के शिष्टाचार सूचक कथनों की एक सूची तैयार कीजिए।
‘खीरा---मेदे पर बोझ डाल देता है’ क्या वास्तव में खीरा अपच करता है? किसी भी खाद्य पदार्थ का पच-अपच होना कई कारणों पर निर्भर करता है। बड़ाें से बातचीत कर कारणों का पता लगाइए। खाद्य पदार्थों के संबंध में बहुत-सी मान्यताएँ हैं जो आपके क्षेत्र में प्रचलित होंगी, उनके बारे में चर्चा कीजिए।

पतनशील सामंती वर्ग का चित्रण प्रेमचंद ने अपनी एक प्रसिद्ध कहानी ‘शतरंज के खिलाड़ी’ में किया था और फिर बाद में सत्यजीत राय ने इस पर इसी नाम से एक पि़् शफ़ल्म भी बनाई थी। यह कहानी ढूँढ़कर पढ़िए और संभव हो तो पि़्फ़ल्म भी देखिए।


Chapter 13 Manveeya Karuda Kee Divya Chamak


मानवीय करुणा की दिव्य चमक

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- प़् फ़ादर की उपस्थिति देवदार की छाया जैसी क्यों लगती थी?

2- प शफ़ादर बुल्के भारतीय संस्कृति के एक अभिन्न अंग हैं, किस आधार पर ऐसा कहा गया है?

3- पाठ में आए उन प्रसंगों का उल्लेख कीजिए जिनसे प् शफ़ादर बुल्के का हिदी प्रेम प्रकट होता है?

4- इस पाठ के आधार पर प् शफ़ादर कामिल बुल्के की जो छवि उभरती है उसे अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

5- लेखक ने प् शफ़ादर बुल्के को ‘मानवीय करफ़णा की दिव्य चमक’ क्यों कहा है?

6- प् शफ़ादर बुल्के ने संन्यासी की परंपरागत छवि से अलग एक नयी छवि प्रस्तुत की है, कैसे?

7- आशय स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) नम आँखों को गिनना स्याही फैलाना है।
(ख) प् शफ़ादर को याद करना एक उदास शांत संगीत को सुनने जैसा है।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- आपके विचार से बुल्के ने भारत आने का मन क्यों बनाया होगा?

9- ‘बहुत सुंदर है मेरी जन्मभूमिμरेम्सचैपल।’μइस पंक्ति में प् ़ शफ़ादर बुल्के की अपनी जन्मभूमि के प्रति कौन-सी भावनाएँ अभिव्यक्त होती हैं? आप अपनी जन्मभूमि के बारे में क्या सोचते हैं?

भाषा-अध्ययन

10- मेरा देश भारत विषय पर 200 शब्दों का निबंध लिखिए।

11- आपका मित्र हडसन एंड्री ऑस्ट्रेलिया में रहता है। उसे इस बार की गर्मी की छुि‘यों के दौरान भारत के पर्वतीय प्रदेशों के भ्रमण हेतु निमंत्रित करते हुए पत्र लिखिए।

12- निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में समुच्यबोधक छाँटकर अलग लिखिएμ
(क) तब भी जब वह इलाहाबाद में थे और तब भी जब वह दिल्ली आते थे।
(ख) माँ ने बचपन में ही घोषित कर दिया था कि लड़का हाथ से गया।
(ग) वे रिश्ता बनाते थे तो तोड़ते नहीं थे।
(घ) उनके मुख से सांत्वना के जादू भरे दो शब्द सुनना एक ऐसी रोशनी से भर देता था जो किसी गहरी तपस्या से जनमती है।
(घ) पिता और भाइयों के लिए बहुत लगाव मन में नहीं था लेकिन वो स्मृति में अकसर डूब जाते।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

प् शफ़ादर बुल्के का ‘अंग्रेजी-हिदी कोश’ उनकी एक महत्त्वपूर्ण देन है। इस कोश को देखिए-समझिए।
प् शफ़ादर बुल्के की तरह ऐसी अनेक विभूतियाँ हुईं हैं जिनकी जन्मभूमि अन्यत्र थी लेकिन कर्मभूमि के रूप में उन्होंने भारत को चुना। ऐसे अन्य व्यक्तियों के बारे में जानकारी एकत्र कीजिए।

कुछ ऐसे व्यक्ति भी हुए हैं जिनकी जन्मभूमि भारत है लेकिन उन्होंने अपनी कर्मभूमि किसी और देश को बनाया है, उनके बारे में भी पता लगाइए।
एक अन्य पहलू यह भी है कि पश्चिम की चकाचौंध से आकर्षित होकर अनेक भारतीय विदेशों की ओर उन्मुख हो रहे हैंμइस पर अपने विचार लिखिए।


Chapter 14 Ek kahani Yah Bhi


एक कहानी यह भी

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- लेखिका के व्यक्तित्व पर किन-किन व्यक्तियों का किस रूप में प्रभाव पड़ा?

2- इस आत्मकथ्य में लेखिका के पिता ने रसोई को ‘भटियारखाना’ कहकर क्यों संबोधित किया है?

3- वह कौन-सी घटना थी जिसके बारे में सुनने पर लेखिका को न अपनी आँखों पर विश्वास हो पाया और न अपने कानों पर?

4- लेखिका की अपने पिता से वैचारिक टकराहट को अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

5- इस आत्मकथ्य के आधार पर स्वाधीनता आंदोलन के परिदृश्य का चित्रण करते हुए उसमें मन्नू जी की भूमिका को रेखांकित कीजिए।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

6- लेखिका ने बचपन में अपने भाइयों के साथ गिल्ली डंडा तथा पतंग उड़ाने जैसे खेल भी खेले कितु लड़की होने के कारण उनका दायरा घर की चारदीवारी तक सीमित था। क्या आज भी लड़कियों के लिए स्थितियाँ ऐसी ही हैं या बदल गई हैं, अपने परिवेश के आधार पर लिखिए।

7- मनुष्य के जीवन में आस-पड़ोस का बहुत महत्त्व होता है। परंतु महानगरों में रहने वाले लोग प्रायः ‘पड़ोस कल्चर’ से वंचित रह जाते हैं। इस बारे में अपने विचार लिखिए।

8- लेखिका द्वारा पढ़े गए उपन्यासों की सूची बनाइए और उन उपन्यासों को अपने पुस्तकालय में खोजिए।

9- आप भी अपने दैनिक अनुभवों को डायरी में लिखिए।
 

भाषा-अध्ययन

10- इस आत्मकथ्य में मुहावरों का प्रयोग करके लेखिका ने रचना को रोचक बनाया है। रेखांकित मुहावरों को ध्यान में रखकर कुछ और वाक्य बनाएँμ
(क) इस बीच पिता जी के एक निहायत दकियानूसी मित्र ने घर आकर अच्छी तरह पिता जी की लू उतारी।
(ख) वे तो आग लगाकर चले गए और पिता जी सारे दिन भभकते रहे।
(ग) बस अब यही रह गया है कि लोग घर आकर थू-थू करके चले जाएँ।
(घ) पत्र पढ़ते ही पिता जी आग-बबूला।

पाठेतर सक्रियता

इस आत्मकथ्य से हमें यह जानकारी मिलती है कि कैसे लेखिका का परिचय साहित्य की अच्छी पुस्तकों से हुआ। आप इस जानकारी का लाभ उठाते हुए अच्छी साहित्यिक पुस्तकें पढ़ने का सिलसिला शुरू कर सकते हैं। कौन जानता है कि आप में से ही कोई अच्छा पाठक बनने के साथ-साथ अच्छा रचनाकार भी बन जाए। लेखिका के बचपन के खेलों में लँगड़ी टाँग, पकड़म-पकड़ाई और काली-टीलो आदि शामिल थे। क्या आप भी यह खेल खेलते हैं। आपके परिवेश में इन खेलों के लिए कौन-से शब्द प्रचलन में हैं। इनके अतिरिक्त आप जो खेल खेलते हैं उन पर चर्चा कीजिए। स्वतंत्रता आंदोलन में महिलाओं की भी सक्रिय भागीदारी रही है। उनके बारे में जानकारी प्राप्त कीजिए और उनमें से किसी एक पर प्रोजेक्ट तैयार कीजिए।


Chapter 15 Estri Virodhi Kutarko Ka Khundan


स्त्री-शिक्षा के विरोधी कुतर्कों का खंडन

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- कुछ पुरातन पंथी लोग स्त्रियों की शिक्षा के विरोधी थे। द्विवेदी जी ने क्या-क्या तर्क देकर स्त्री-शिक्षा का समर्थन किया?

2- ‘स्त्रियों को पढ़ाने से अनर्थ होते हैं’μकुतर्कवादियों की इस दलील का खंडन द्विवेदी जी ने कैसे किया है, अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

3- द्विवेदी जी ने स्त्री-शिक्षा विरोधी कुतर्कों का खंडन करने के लिए व्यंग्य का सहारा लिया है-जैसे ‘यह सब पापी पढ़ने का अपराध है। न वे पढ़तीं, न वे पूजनीय पुुरफ़षों का मुकाबला करतीं।’ आप ऐसे अन्य अंशों को निबंध में से छाँटकर समझिए और लिखिए।

4- पुराने समय में स्त्रियों द्वारा प्राकृत भाषा में बोलना क्या उनके अपढ़ होने का सबूत हैμपाठ के आधार पर स्पष्ट कीजिए।

5- परंपरा के उन्हीं पक्षों को स्वीकार किया जाना चाहिए जो स्त्री-पुरफ़ष समानता को बढ़ाते हों-तर्क सहित उत्तर दीजिए।

6- तब की शिक्षा प्रणाली और अब की शिक्षा प्रणाली में क्या अंतर है? स्पष्ट करें।

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

7- महावीरप्रसाद द्विवेदी का निबंध उनकी दूरगामी और खुली सोच का परिचायक है, कैसे?

8- द्विवेदी जी की भाषा-शैली पर एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए।

भाषा-अध्ययन

9- निम्नलिखित अनेकार्थी शब्दों को ऐसे वाक्यों में प्रयुक्त कीजिए जिनमें उनके एकाधिक अर्थ स्पष्ट होंμ
चाल, दल, पत्र, हरा, पर, फल, कुल पाठेतर सक्रियता अपनी दादी, नानी और माँ से बातचीत कीजिए और (स्त्री-शिक्षा संबंधी) उस समय की स्थितियों का पता लगाइए और अपनी स्थितियों से तुलना करते हुए निबंध लिखिए। चाहें तो उसके साथ तसवीरें भी चिपकाइए। लड़कियों की शिक्षा के प्रति परिवार और समाज में जागरूकता आएμइसके लिए आप क्या-क्या करेंगे? स्त्री-शिक्षा पर एक पोस्टर तैयार कीजिए। स्त्री-शिक्षा पर एक नुक्कड़ नाटक तैयार कर उसे प्रस्तुत कीजिए।


Chapter 16 Noubat Khane Ki Ebadat


नौबतखाने में इबादत

प्रश्न-अभ्यास

1- शहनाई की दुनिया में डुमराँव को क्यों याद किया जाता है?

2- बिस्मिल्ला खाँ को शहनाई की मंगलध्वनि का नायक क्यों कहा गया है?

3- सुषिर-वाद्यों से क्या अभिप्राय है? शहनाई को ‘सुषिर वाद्यों में शाह’ की उपाधि क्यों दी गई होगी?

4- आशय स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) ‘फटा सुर न बख्शें। लुंगिया का क्या है, आज फटी है, तो कल सी जाएगी।’
(ख) ‘मेरे मालिक सुर बख्श दे। सुर में वह तासीर पैदा कर कि आँखों से सच्चे मोती की तरह अनगढ़ आँसू निकल आएँ।’

5- काशी में हो रहे कौन-से परिवर्तन बिस्मिल्ला खाँ को व्यथित करते थे?

6- पाठ में आए किन प्रसंगों के आधार पर आप कह सकते हैं किμ
(क) बिस्मिल्ला खाँ मिली-जुली संस्कृति के प्रतीक थे।
(ख) वे वास्तविक अर्थों में एक सच्चे इनसान थे।

7- बिस्मिल्ला खाँ के जीवन से जुड़ी उन घटनाओं और व्यक्तियों का उल्लेख करें जिन्होंने उनकी संगीत साधना को समृद्ध किया?

रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- बिस्मिल्ला खाँ के व्यक्तित्व की कौन-कौन सी विशेषताओं ने आपको प्रभावित किया?

9- मुहर्रम से बिस्मिल्ला खाँ के जुड़ाव को अपने शब्दों में लिखिए।

10- बिस्मिल्ला खाँ कला के अनन्य उपासक थे, तर्क सहित उत्तर दीजिए।

भाषा अध्ययन

11- निम्नलिखित मिश्र वाक्यों के उपवाक्य छाँटकर भेद भी लिखिएμ
(क) यह जरूर है कि शहनाई और डुमराँव एक-दूसरे के लिए उपयोगी हैं।
(ख) रीड अंदर से पोली होती है जिसके सहारे शहनाई को फूँका जाता है।
(ग) रीड नरकट से बनाई जाती है जो डुमराँव में मुख्यतः सोन नदी के किनारों पर पाई जाती है।
(घ) उनको यकीन है, कभी खुदा यूँ ही उन पर मेहरबान होगा।
(घ) हिरन अपनी ही महक से परेशान पूरे जंगल में उस वरदान को खोजता है जिसकी गमक उसी में समाई है।
(च) खाँ साहब की सबसे बड़ी देन हमें यही है कि पूरे अस्सी बरस उन्होंने संगीत को संपूर्णता व एकाधिकार से सीखने की जिजीविषा को अपने भीतर जिंदा रखा।

12- निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को मिश्रित वाक्यों में बदलिएμ
(क) इसी बालसुलभ हँसी में कई यादें बंद हैं।
(ख) काशी में संगीत आयोजन की एक प्राचीन एवं अद्भुत परंपरा है।
(ग) धत्! पगली ई भारतरत्न हमको शहनईया पे मिला है, लुंगिया पे नाहीं।
(घ) काशी का नायाब हीरा हमेशा से दो कौमों को एक होकर आपस में भाईचारे के साथ रहने की प्रेरणा देता रहा।\

पाठेतर सक्रियता

कल्पना कीजिए कि आपके विद्यालय में किसी प्रसिद्ध संगीतकार के शहनाई वादन का कार्यक्रम आयोजित किया जा रहा है। इस कार्यक्रम की सूचना देते हुए बुलेटिन बोर्ड के लिए नोटिस बनाइए। आप अपने मनपसंद संगीतकार के बारे में एक अनुच्छेद लिखिए। हमारे साहित्य, कला, संगीत और नृत्य को समृद्ध करने में काशी (आज के वाराणसी) के योगदान पर चर्चा कीजिए। काशी का नाम आते ही हमारी आँखों के सामने काशी की बहुत-सी चीजें उभरने लगती हैं, वे कौन-कौन सी हैं?


Chapter 17 Sanskrity


संस्कृति

1- लेखक की दृष्टि में ‘सभ्यता’ और ‘संस्कृति’ की सही समझ अब तक क्यों नहीं बन पाई है?

2- आग की खोज एक बहुत बड़ी खोज क्यों मानी जाती है? इस खोज के पीछे रही प्रेरणा के मुख्य स्रोत क्या रहे होंगे?

3- वास्तविक अर्थों में ‘संस्कृत व्यक्ति’ किसे कहा जा सकता है?

4- न्यूटन को संस्कृत मानव कहने के पीछे कौन से तर्क दिए गए हैं? न्यूटन द्वारा प्रतिपादित सिद्धांतों एवं ज्ञान की कई दूसरी बारीकियों को जानने वाले लोग भी न्यूटन की तरह संस्कृत नहीं कहला सकते, क्यों?

5- किन महत्त्वपूर्ण आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति के लिए सुई-धागे का आविष्कार हुआ होगा?

6- फ्मानव संस्कृति एक अविभाज्य वस्तु है।य् किन्हीं दो प्रसंगाें का उल्लेख कीजिए जब दवज जव इम तमचनइसपेीमक
(क) मानव संस्कृति को विभाजित करने की चेष्टाएँ की गईं।
(ख) जब मानव संस्कृति ने अपने एक होने का प्रमाण दिया।

7- आशय स्पष्ट कीजिएμ
(क) मानव की जो योग्यता उससे आत्म-विनाश के साधनों का आविष्कार कराती है, हम उसे उसकी संस्कृति कहें या असंस्कृति? रचना और अभिव्यक्ति

8- लेखक ने अपने दृष्टिकोण से सभ्यता और संस्कृति की एक परिभाषा दी है। आप सभ्यता और संस्कृति के बारे में क्या सोचते हैं, लिखिए।

भाषा-अध्ययन

9- निम्नलिखित सामासिक पदों का विग्रह करके समास का भेद भी लिखिएμ
गलत-सलत आत्म-विनाश
महामानव पददलित
हिदू-मुसलिम यथोचित
सप्तर्षि सुलोचना
पाठेतर सक्रियता
‘स्थूल भौतिक कारण ही आविष्कारों का आधार नहीं है।’ इस विषय पर वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता का आयोजन कीजिए।
उन खोजों और आविष्कारों की सूची तैयार कीजिए जो आपकी नजर में बहुत महत्त्वपूर्ण हैं?
शब्द-संपदा
ौ छब्म्त्ज्
आध्यात्मिक - परमात्मा या आत्मा से संबंध रखने वाला मन से संबंध रखने वाला
साक्षात - आँखों के सामने, प्रत्यक्ष, सीधे
आविष्कर्ता - आविष्कार करने वाला
परिष्कृत - जिसका परिष्कार किया गया हो, शुद्ध किया हुआ, साप्
़ शफ़ किया हुआ



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NCERT English Question Paper (Class - 10)

Posted: 30 May 2018 12:11 AM PDT

NCERT  English Question Paper (Class - 10)


Chapter 1 A Letter to God


Question 1: What did Lencho hope for?

Question 2: Why did Lencho say the raindrops were like 'new coins'?

Question 3: How did the rain change? What happened to Lencho's fields?

Question 4: What were Lencho's feelings when the hail stopped?

Question 5: Who or what did Lencho have faith in? What did he do?

Question 6: Who read the letter?

Question 7: What did the postmaster do then?

Question 8: Who does Lencho have complete faith in? Which sentences in the story tell you this?

Question 9: Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter 'God'?

Question 10: Did Lencho try to find out who had sent the money to him? Why/Why not?

Question 11: Who does Lencho think has taken the rest of the money? What is the irony in the situation? [Remember that the irony of a situation is an unexpected aspect of it. An ironic situation is strange or amusing because it is the opposite of what is expected.]

Question 12: Are there people like Lencho in the real world? What kind of a person would you say he is? You may select appropriate words from the box to answer the question.

Question 13: There are two kinds of conflict in the story: between humans and nature, and between humans themselves. How are these conflicts illustrated?

Question 14: Was Lencho surprised to find a letter for him with money in it?

Question 15: What made him angry?

Question 16: There are different names in different parts of the world for storms,depending on their nature. Can you match the names in the box with theirdescriptions below, and fill in the blanks? You may use a dictionary to help

Question 17: Match the sentences in Column A with the meanings of 'hope' in Column B.

Question 18: Relative Clauses Join the sentences given below using who, whom, whose, which as suggested.

Question 19: Find sentences in the story with negative words, which express the following ideas emphatically.

Question 20: In pairs, find metaphors from the story to complete the table below. Try to say what qualities are being compared. One has been done for you.


Chapter 2 Long Walk to Freedom


Oral Comprehension Check

Question 1: Where did the ceremonies take place? Can you name any public buildings in India that are made of sandstone?

Question 2: Can you say how 10 May is an 'autumn day' in South Africa?

Question 3: At the beginning of his speech, Madela mentions "an extraordinary human disaster". What does he mean by this? What is the "glorious … human achievement" he speaks of at the end?

Question 4: What does Mandela thank the international leaders for?

Question 5: What ideals does he set out for the future of South Africa?

Question 6: What do the military generals do? How has their attitude changed, and why?

Question 7: Why were two national anthems sung?

Question 8: How does Mandela describe the systems of government in his country (i) in the first decade, and (ii) in the final decade, of the twentieth century?

Question 9: What does courage mean to Mandela?

Question 10: Which does he think is natural, to love or to hate?

Thinking About the Text

Question 1: Why did such a large number of international leaders attend the inauguration? Whatdid it signify the triumph of?

Question 2: What does Mandela mean when he says he is "simply the sum of all those Africanpatriots" who had gone before him?

Question 3: Would you agree that the "depths of oppression" create "heights of character? How does Mandela illustrate this? Can you add your own examples to this argument?

Question 4: How did Mandela's understanding of freedom change with age and experience?

Question 5: How did Mandela's 'hunger for freedom' change his life?

Thinking About Language

Question 1: There are nouns in the text (formation, government) which are formed from the corresponding verbs (form, govern) by suffixing − (at)ion or ment. There may be change in the spelling of some verb − noun pairs: such as rebel, rebellion; constitute, constitution.

Question 2: Here are some more examples of 'the' used with proper names. Try to say what these sentences mean. (You may consult a dictionary if you wish. Look at the entry for 'the')

Question 3: Match, the italicised phrases in Column A with the phrase nearest meaning in Column B. (Hint: First look for the sentence in the text which the phrase in column A occurs.)
Oral Comprehension Check

Question 4: What "twin obligations" does Mandela mention?

Question 5: What did being free mean to Mandela as a boy, and as a student? How does he contrast these "transitory freedoms" with "the basic and honourable freedoms"?

Question 6: Does Mandela think the oppressor is free? Why/Why not?


Chapter 3 Two Stories About Flying


Question 1: Why was the young seagull afraid to fly? Do you think all young birds are afraid to make their first flight, or are some birds more timid than others? Do you think a human baby also finds it a challenge to take its first steps?

Question 2: "The sight of the food maddened him." What does this suggest? What compelled the young seagull to finally fly?

Question 3:  "They were beckoning to him, calling shrilly. "Why did the seagull's father and mother threaten him and cajole him to fly?

Question 4: Have you ever had a similar experience, where your parents encouraged you to do something that you were too scared to try? Discuss this in pairs or groups.

Question 5: In the case of a bird flying, it seems a natural act, and a foregone conclusion that it should succeed. In the examples you have given in answer to the previous question, was your success guaranteed, or was it important for you to try, regardless of a possibility of failure?

Question 6: "I'll take the risk." What is the risk? Why does the narrator take it?

Question 7: Describe the narrator's experience as he flew the aeroplane into the storm.

Question 8: Why does the narrator say, "I landed and was not sorry to walk away from the old Dakota…"?

Question 9: What made the woman in the control centre look at the narrator strangely?

Question 10: Who do you think helped the narrator to reach safely? Discuss this among yourselves and give reasons for your answer.

Question 11: Try to guess the meanings of the word 'black' in the sentences given below. Check the meanings in the dictionary and find out whether you have guessed right.

1. Go and have a bath; your hands and face are absolutely black __________.
2. The taxi-driver gave Ratan a black look as he crossed the road when the traffic light was green. __________
3. The bombardment of Hiroshima is one of the blackest crimes against humanity. __________
4. Very few people enjoy Harold Pinter's black comedy. __________
5. Sometimes shopkeepers store essential goods to create false scarcity and then sell these in black. __________
6. Villagers had beaten the criminal black and blue. __________

Question 12: Match the phrases given under Column A with their meanings given under Column B:

Question 13: We know that the word 'fly' (of birds/insects) means to move through air using wings. Tick the words which have the same or nearly the same meaning.


Chapter 4 From the Diary of Anne Frank


Question 1: Do you keep a diary? Given below under 'A' are some terms we use to describe a written record of personal experience. Can you match them with their descriptions under 'B'? (You may look up the terms in a dictionary if you wish.)

Question 2: Here are some entries from personal records. Use the definitions above to decide which of the entries might be from a diary, a journal, a log or a memoir. (i) I woke up very late today and promptly got a scolding from Mum! I can't help it − how can I miss the FIFA World Cup matches?

Question 3: Why does Anne provide a brief sketch of her life?

Question 4: What tells you that Anne loved her grandmother?

Question 5: Was Anne right when she said that the world would not be interested in the musings of a thirteen-year-old girl?

Question 6: There are some examples of diary or journal entries in the 'Before You Read' section. Compare these with what Anne writes in her diary. What language was the diary originally written in? In what way is Anne's dairy different?

Question 7: Why does Anne need to give a brief sketch about her family? Does she treat 'Kitty' as an insider or an outsider?

Question 8: How does Anne feel about her father, her grandmother, Mrs Kuperus and Mr Keesing? What do these tell you about her?

Question 9: What does Anne write in her first essay?

Question 10: Anne says teachers are most unpredictable. Is Mr Keesing unpredictable? How?

Question 11: What do these statements tell you about Anne Frank as a person?

(i) We don't seem to be able to get any closer, and that's the problem. Maybe it's my fault that we don't confide in each other.
(ii) I don't want to jot down the facts in this diary the way most people would, but I want the diary to be my friend.
(iii) Margot went to Holland in December, and I followed in February, when I was plunked down on the table as a birthday present for Margot.
(iv) If you ask me, there are so many dummies that about a quarter of the class should be kept back, but teachers are the most unpredictable creatures on earth.
(v) Anyone could ramble on and leave big spaces between the words, but the trick was to come up with convincing arguments to prove the necessity of taking.

Question 12: Why was Mr Keesing annoyed with Anne? What did he ask her to do?

Question 13: How did Anne justify her being a chatterbox in her essay?

Question 14: Do you think Mr Keesing was a strict teacher?

Question 15: What made Mr Keesing allow Anne to talk in class?

Question 16: Match the compound words under 'A' with their meanings under 'B'. Use each in sentence.

Question 17: Phrasal Verbs Find the sentences in the lesson that have the phrasal verbs given below. Match them with their meanings.

Question 18:  Idioms
1. Here are a few sentences from the text which have idiomatic expressions. Can you say what each means? (You might want to consult a dictionary first.)

Question 19: You have read the expression 'not to lose heart' in this text. Now find out the meanings of the following expressions using the word 'heart'. Use each of them in a sentence of your own.

Question 20: Contracted Forms 1. Make a list of the contracted forms in the text. Rewrite them as full forms of two words.


Chapter Chapter 5 The Hundred Dresses


Question 1: Where in the classroom does Wanda sit and why?

Question 2: Where does Wanda live? What kind of a place do you think it is?

Question 3: When and why do Peggy and Maddie notice Wanda's absence?

Question 4:  What do you think "to have fun with her" means?

Question 5: In what way was Wanda different from the other children?

Question 6: Did Wanda have a hundred dresses? Why do you think she said she did?

Question 7: Why is Maddie embarrassed by the questions Peggy asks Wanda? Is she also like Wanda, or is she different?

Question 8: How is Wanda seen as different by the other girls? How do they treat her?

Question 9: How does Wanda feel about the dresses game? Why does she say that she has a hundred dresses?

Question 10: Why does Maddie stand by and not do anything? How is she different from Peggy? (Was Peggy's friendship important to Maddie? Why? Which lines in the text tell you this?)

Question 11: What does Miss Mason think of Wanda's drawings? What do the children think of them? How do you know?

Question 12: Why didn't Maddie ask Peggie to stop teasing Wanda? What was she afraid of?

Question 13: Who did Maddie think would win the drawing contest? Why?

Question 14: Who won the drawing contest? What had the winner drawn?

Question 15: Combine the following to make sentences like those above.

1. This is the bus (what kind of bus?) It goes to Agra. (use which or that)
2. I would like to buy (a) shirt (which shirt?). (The) shirt is in the shop window. (use which or that)
3. You must break your fast at a particular time (when?). You see the moon in the sky. (use when)
4. Find a word (what kind of word?). It begins with the letter Z. (use which or that).
5. Now find a person (what kind of person). His or her name begins with the letter Z. (use whose)
6. Then go to a place (what place?). There are no people whose name begins with Z in that place. (use where)

Question 16:  1. Can you say whose point of view the italicised words express?

(i) But on Wednesday, Peggy and Maddie, who sat down front with other children who got good marks and who didn't track in a whole lot of mud, did notice that Wanda wasn't there.
(ii) Wands Petronski. Most of the children in Room Thirteen didn't have names like that. They had names easy to say, like Thomas, Smith or Allen.

Question 17: Look at this sentence. The italicised adverb expresses an opinion or point of view. Obviously, the only dress Wanda had was the blue one she wore every day. (This was obvious to the speaker.)


Chapter 6 The Hundred Dresses(2)


Question 1: What did Mr Petronski's letter say?

Question 2: Is Miss Mason angry with the class, or is she unhappy and upset?

Question 3:
How does Maddie feel after listening to the note from Wanda's father?

Question 4: What does Maddie want to do?

Question 5: What excuses does Peggy think up for her behaviour? Why?

Question 6: What are Maddie's thoughts as they go to Boggins Heights?

Question 7: Why does Wanda's house remind Maddie of Wanda's blue dress?

Question 8: What does Maddie think hard about? What important decision does she come to?

Question 9: Why do you think Wanda's family moved to a different city? Do you think life there was going to be different for their family?

Question 10: Maddie thought her silence was as bad as Peggy's teasing. Was she right?

Question 11: Peggy says, "I never thought she had the sense to know we were making fun of her anyway. I thought she was too dumb. And gee, look how she can draw!" What led Peggy to believe that Wanda was dumb? Did she change her opinion later?

Question 12: What did the girls write to Wanda?

Question 13: Did they get a reply? Who was more anxious for a reply, Peggy or Maddie? How do

Question 14: How did the girls know that Wanda liked them even though they had teased her?

Question 15: What important decision did Maddie make? Why did she have to think hard to do so?

Question 16: Why do you think Wanda gave Maddie and Peggy the drawings of the dresses? Why are they surprised?

Question 17: Do you think Wanda really thought the girls were teasing her? Why or why not?

Question 18: Here are thirty adjectives describing human qualities. Discuss them with your partner and put them in the two word webs (given below) according to whether you think they show positive or negative qualities. You can consult a dictionary if you are not sure of the meanings of some of the words. You may also add to the list the positive or negative 'pair' of a given words.

Question 19: What adjectives can we use to describe Peggy, Wanda and Maddie? You can choose adjectives from the list above. You can also add some of your own.

Question 20: 1.Find the sentences in the story with the following phrasal verbs.

Question 21: Colours are used to describe feelings, moods and emotions. Match the following 'colour expressions' with a suggested paraphrase.


Chapter 7 Glimpses of India


Question 1: What are the elders in Goa nostalgic about?

Question 2: Is bread-making still popular in Goa? How do you know?

Question 3: What is the baker called?

Question 4: When would the baker come everyday? Why did the children run to meet him?

Question 5: Match the following. What is a must

Question 6: What did the bakers wear:
(i) in the Portuguese days?
(ii) when the author was young?

Question 7: Who invites the comment − "he is dressed like a pader"? Why?

Question 8: Where were the monthly accounts of the baker recorded?

Question 9: What does a 'jackfruit-like appearance' mean?

Question 10: Which of these statements are correct?

Question 11:  Is bread an important part of Goan life? How do you know this?

Question 12: Tick the right answer. What is the tone of the author when he says the following?

(i) The thud and the jingle of the traditional baker's bamboo can still be heard in some places. (nostalgic, hopeful, sad)
(ii) Maybe the father is not alive but the son still carries on the family profession. (nostalgic, hopeful, sad)
(iii) I still recall the typical fragrance of those loaves. (nostalgic, hopeful, naughty)
(iv) The tiger never brushed his teeth. Hot tea could wash and clean up everything so nicely, after all. (naughty, angry, funny)
(v) Cakes and bolinhas are a must for Christmas as well as other festivals. (sad, hopeful, matter-of-fact)
(vi) The baker and his family never starved. They always looked happy and prosperous. (matter-of-fact, hopeful, sad)

Question 13: Where is Coorg?

Question 14: What is the story about the Kodavu people's descent?

Question 15: What are some of the things you now know about
(i) the people of Coorg?
(ii) the main crop of Coorg?
(iii) the sports it offers to tourists?
(iv) the animals you are likely to see in Coorg?
(v) its distance from Bangalore, and how to get there?

Question 16:  Here are six sentences with some words in italics. Find phrases from the text that have the same meaning. (Look in the paragraphs indicated)

(i) During monsoons it rains so heavily that tourists do not visit Coorg. (para 2)
(ii) Some people say that Alexander's army moved south along the coast and settled there. (para 3)
(iii) The Coorg people are always ready to tell stories of their sons' and fathers' valour. (para 4)
(iv) Even people who normally lead an easy and slow life get smitten by the highenergy adventure sports of Coorg. (para 6)
(v)The theory of the Arab origin is supported by the long coat with embroidered waist-belt they wear. (para 3)
(vi) Macaques, Malabar squirrels observe you carefully from the tree canopy. (para 7)

Question 17:  Here are some nouns from the text. culture monks surprise experience weather tradition Work with a partner and discuss which of the nouns can collocate with which of the adjectives given below. The first one has been done for you.

Question 18: Complete the following phrases from the text. For each phrase, can you find at least one other word that would fit into the blank?

Question 19: 1. Look at these words: upkeep, downpour, undergo, dropout, walk-in. They are built up from a verb (keep, pour, go, drop, walk) and an adverb or a particle (up, down, under, out, in). Use these words appropriately in the sentences below. You may consult a dictionary.

1. Think of suitable −ing or −ed adjectives to answer the following questions. How would you describe


Chapter 8 Mijbil the Otter


Question 1: What 'experiment' did Maxwell think Camusfearna would be suitable for?

Question 2:
hy does he go to Basra? How long does he wait there, and why?

Question 3:
How does he get the otter? Does he like it? Pick out the words that tell you this.

Question 4:
Why was the otter named 'Maxwell's otter'?

Question 5: Tick the right answer. In the beginning, the otter was aloof and indifferent, friendly and hostile

Question 6: What happened when Maxwell took Mijbil to the bathroom? What did it do two days after that?

Question 7: How was Mij to be transported to England?

Question 8: What did Mij do to the box?

Question 9: Why did Maxwell put the otter back in the box? How do you think he felt when he did this?

Question 10: Why does Maxwell say the airhostess was "the very queen of her kind"?

Question 11: What happened when the box was opened?

Question 12: What things does Mij do which tell you that he is an intelligent, friendly and funloving animal who needs love?

Question 13: What are some of the things we come to know about otters from this text?

Question 14: Why is Mij's species now known to the world as Maxwell's otter?

Question 15: Maxwell in the story speaks for the otter, Mij. He tells us what the otter feels and thinks on different occasions. Given below are some things the otter does. Complete the column on the right to say what Maxwell says about what Mij feels and thinks.

Question 16: What game had Mij invented?

Question 18: What are 'compulsive habits'? What does Maxwell say are the compulsive habits of (i) school children (ii) Mij?

Question 19: What group of animals do otters belong to?

Question 20: What guesses did the Londoners make about what Mij was?

Question 21: Read the story and find the sentences where Maxwell describes his pet otter. Thenchoose and arrange your sentences to illustrate those statements below that youthink are true.

Question 22: From the table below, make as many correct sentences as you can using would and/or used to, as appropriate. (Hint: First decide whether the words in italics show an action, or a state or situation, in the past.) Then add two or three sentences of your own to it.

Question 23:  II. Noun Modifiers
1. Look at these examples from the text, and say whether the modifiers (in italics) are nouns, proper nouns, or adjective plus noun.

Question 24:  1. Match the words on the left with a word on the right. Some words on the left can go with more than one word on the right.

2. Use a bit of/a piece of/a bunch of/a cloud of/a lump of with the italicised nouns ithe following sentences. The first has been done for you as an example.


Chapter 9 Madam Rides the Bus


Question 1: What was Valli's favourite pastime?

Question 2:
What was a source of unending joy for Valli? What was her strongest desire?

Question 3: What did Valli find out about the bus journey? How did she find out these details?

Question 4: What do you think Valli was planning to do?

Question 5: How do you usually understand the idea of 'selfishness'? Do you agree with Kisa Gotami that she was being 'selfish in her grief'?

Question 6: Why does the conductor call Valli 'madam'?

Question 7: Why does Valli stand up on the seat? What does she see now?

Question 8: What does Valli tell the elderly man when he calls her a child?

Question 9:  Why didn't Valli want to make friends with the elderly woman?

Question 10: How did Valli save up money for her first journey? Was it easy for her?

Question 11: What did Valli see on her way that made her laugh?

Question 12: Why didn't she get off the bus at the bus station?

Question 13: Why didn't Valli want to go to the stall and have a drink? What does this tell youabout her?

Question 14: What was Valli's deepest desire? Find the words and phrases in the story that tell you this.

Question 15: How did Valli plan her bus ride? What did she find out about the bus, and how did she save up the fare?

Question 16:  What kind of a person is Valli? To answer this question, pick out the following sentences from the text and fill in the blanks. The words you fill in are the clues to your answer.]

(i) "Stop the bus! Stop the bus!" And a tiny hand was raised ________________.
(ii) "Yes, I ____________ go to town," said Valli, still standing outside the bus.
(iii) "There's nobody here ____________," she said haughtily. "I've paid my thirty paise like everyone else."
(iv) "Never mind," she said, "I can ___________. You don't have to help me. "I'm not a child, I tell you," she said, _____________.
(v) "You needn't bother about me. I _____________," Valli said, turning her face toward the window and staring out.
(vi) Then she turned to the conductor and said, "Well, sir, I hope ______________."

Question 17: Why does the conductor refer to Valli as 'madam'?

Question 18: Find the lines in the text which tell you that Valli was enjoying her ride on the bus.

Question 19: Why does Valli refuse to look out of the window on her way back?

Question 20: What does Valli mean when she says, "I was just agreeing with what you said about things happening without our knowledge."

Question 21: The author describes the things that Valii sees from an eight-year-old's point of view. Can you find evidence from the text for this statement?


Chapter 10 The Sermon at Benares


Question 1: When her son dies, Kisa Gotami goes from house to house. What does she ask for? Does she get it? Why not?

Question 2: Kisa Gotami again goes from house to house after she speaks with the Buddha. What does she ask for, the second time around? Does she get it? Why not?

Question 3: What does Kisa Gotami understand the second time that she failed to understand the first time? Was this what the Buddha wanted her to understand

Question 4: Why do you think Kisa Gotami understood this only the second time? In what way did the Buddha change her understanding?

Question 5: This text is written in an old-fashioned style, for it reports an incident more than two millennia old. Look for the following words and phrases in the text, and try to rephrase them in more current language, based on how you understand them.

Question 6  You know that we can combine sentences using words like and, or, but, yet and then. But sometimes no such word seems appropriate. In such a case was can use a semicolon (;) or a dash (−) to combine two clauses. She has no interest in music; I doubt she will become a singer like her mother. The second clause here gives the speaker's opinion on the first clause. Here is a sentence from the text that uses semicolons to combine clauses. Break up the sentence into three simple sentences. Can you then say which has a better rhythm when you read it, the single sentence using semicolons, or the three simple sentences? For there is not any means by which those who have been born can avoid dying; after reaching old age there is death; of such a nature are living beings.


Chapter 11 The Proposa


Question 1: 1. This play has been translated into English from the Russian original. Are there any expressions or ways of speaking that strike you as more Russian than English? For example, would an adult man be addressed by an older man as my darling or my treasure in an English play?

Read through the play carefully, and find expressions that you think are not used in contemporary English, and contrast these with idiomatic modern English expressions that also occur in the play.

3. Look up the following phrases in a dictionary to find out their meaning, and then use each in a sentence of your own.
(i) You may take it that
(ii) He seems to be coming round
(iii) My foot's gone to sleep

Question 2:
What does Chubukov at first suspect that Lomov has come for? Is he sincere when he later says "And I've always loved you, my angel, as if you were my own son"? Find reasons for your answer from the play.

Question 3: Chubukov says of Natalya: "... as if she won't consent! She's in love; egad, she's like a lovesick cat…" Would you agree? Find reasons for your answer.

Question 4: (i) Find all the words and expressions in the play that the characters use to speak about each other, and the accusations and insults they hurl at each other. (For example, Lomov in the end calls Chubukov an intriguer; but earlier, Chubukov has himself called Lomov a "malicious, double faced intriguer." Again, Lomov begins bydescribing Nayalya as " an excellent housekeeper, not bad-looking, well-educated.")

Question 5: You mush have noticed that when we report someone's exact words, we have to make some changes in the sentence structure. In the following sentences fill in the blanks to list the changes that have occurred in the above pairs of sentences. One has been done for you.

1. To report a question, we use the reporting verb asked (as in Sentence Set 1).
2. To report a declaration, we use the reporting verb __________.
3. The adverb of place here changes to ___________.
4. When the verb in direct speech is in the present tense, the verb in reported speech is in the ______________ tense (as in Sentence Set 3).
5. If the verb in direct speech is in the present continuous tense, the verb in reported speech changes to ______________tense. For example, ____________ changes to was getting.
6. When the sentence in direct speech contains a word denoting respect, we add the adverb _______________in the reporting clause (as in Sentence Set 1).
7. The pronouns I, me, our and mine, which are used in the first person in direct speech, change to third person pronouns such as____________, ___________, ___________ or __________in reported speech.

Question 6:  Here is an excerpt from an article from the Times of India dated 27 August 2006. Rewrite it, changing the sentences in direct speech into reported speech. Leave the other sentences unchanged. "Why do you want to know my age? If people know I am so old, I won't get work!" laughs 90-year-old A. K. Hangal, one of Hindi cinema's most famous character actors. For his age, he is rather energetic. "What's the secret?" we ask. "My intake of everything is in small quantities. And I walk a lot," he replies. "I joined the industry when people retire. I was in my 40s. So I don't miss being called a star. I am still respected and given work, when actors of my age are living in poverty and without work. I don't have any complaints," he says, adding, "but yes, I have always been underpaid." Recipient of the Padma Bhushan, Hangal never hankered after money or materialistic gains. "No doubt I am content today, but money is important. I was a fool not to understand the value of money earlier," he regrets.



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Tuesday, May 29, 2018

CBSE PORTAL : (Result) CBSE - Class X Examination Result 2018

CBSE PORTAL : (Result) CBSE - Class X Examination Result 2018

Link to CBSE PORTAL : CBSE, ICSE, NIOS, JEE-MAIN, AIPMT Students Community

(Result) CBSE - Class X Examination Result 2018

Posted: 29 May 2018 01:04 AM PDT

(Result) CBSE - Class X Examination Result 2018

Exam Name: CBSE

Class: 10th

Year: 2018

Date of Result Declaration : 29th May, 2018

Click Here For Result

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Courtesy: CBSE

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(Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : Psychology

Posted: 29 May 2018 12:22 AM PDT

(Download) CBSE Class-12 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2017-18 : Psychology

Psychology
Class- XII
Sample Question Paper – 2018

Time – 3 Hours

Max Marks – 70

General instructions

  • All questions are compulsory and answers should be brief and to the point.
  • Marks for each question are indicated against it.
  • Question No 1- 10 in part A are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each. You are expected to answer them as directed.
  • Question No 11-16 in Part B are very short answer questions carriying2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
  • Question No. 17-20 in Part C are short answer type-I questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
  • Question No. 21-26 in Part D are short answer type-II questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
  • Question No. 27 and 28 in Part E are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words.

Part – A

Q 1. Ritu is hardworking, committed and patiently works towards her
goal. She is said to be high on ––––––– competence.
a) Cognitive
c) Emotional
b) Entrepreneurial
d) Social
Q 2. An individual is rejected in a job interview, which he was very
eager to join. Now he claims his present job is better. He is
using__________:
a) Reaction Formation
b) Projection
c) Regression
d) Rationalisation
Q 3. The impact of any stressful event depends largely on the way we
interpret it. (True /False)
Q 4. A student thinks that he can complete the task effectively and achieve his goal. This is an example of:
a) Self efficacy
b) Self esteem
c) Self concept
d) Self control
Q 5. Sunil shows loss of interest in most of the activities, cannot sleep well at night, exhibits excessive guilt and loss of interest in activities that he would enjoy earlier. Sunil’s symptoms are akin to that of:
a) Somatoform Disorder c) Major depressive disorder
b) Obsessive compulsive disorder d) Generalised Anxiety Disorder
Q 6. The therapy that leads to cognitive restructuring has proved to be successful in the treatment of _______________________.
a) Depression and mania
b) Schizophrenia
c) Phobias
d) Anxiety and depression
Q7. When an individual changes in a direction opposite to the existing attitude, it is called incongruent attitude change (True/ False)

Q 8. Values refer to the cognitive component of attitudes, and form the ground on which attitudes stand, like belief in the Supreme Being. (True/ False)
Q 9. ‘Perceiving or thinking that one has got less than what one should get’ refers to __________.
Q 10. A ____________ is a purposeful conversation between two or more people that follows a basic question and answer format.

Part – B

Q 11. What are the characteristics that comprise positive health?
Q. 12. Differentiate between surface and source traits.

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NCERT Mathematics Question Paper (Class - 9)

Posted: 29 May 2018 12:15 AM PDT

NCERT Mathematics Question Paper (Class - 9)

 


(Mathematics) Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry


EXERCISE 3.1 

Question 1. How will you describe the position of a table lamp on your study table to another person?

Question 2. (Street Plan) : A city has two main roads which cross each other at the centre of the city. These two roads are along the North-South direction and East-West direction.

(i) The perpendicular distance of the point P from the y - axis measured along the positive direction of the x - axis is PN = OM = 4 units.
(ii) The perpendicular distance of the point P from the x - axis measured along the positive direction of the y - axis is PM = ON = 3 units.
(iii) The perpendicular distance of the point Q from the y - axis measured along the negative direction of the x - axis is OR = SQ = 6 units.
(iv) The perpendicular distance of the point Q from the x - axis measured along the negative direction of the y - axis is OS = RQ = 2 units. Now, using these distances, how can we describe the points so that there is no confusion? We write the coordinates of a point, using the following conventions:

(i) The x - coordinate of a point is its perpendicular distance from the y - axis measured along the x -axis (positive along the positive direction of the x - axis and negative along the negative direction of the x - axis). For the point P, it is + 4 and for Q, it is – 6. The x - coordinate is also called the abscissa.
(ii) The y - coordinate of a point is its perpendicular distance from the x - axis measured along the y - axis (positive along the positive direction of the y - axis and negative along the negative direction of the y - axis). For the point P, it is + 3 and for Q, it is –2. The y - coordinate is also called the ordinate.
(iii) In stating the coordinates of a point in the coordinate plane, the x - coordinate comes first, and then the y - coordinate. We place the coordinates in brackets. Hence, the coordinates of P are (4, 3) and the coordinates of Q are (– 6, – 2). Note that the coordinates describe a point in the plane uniquely. (3, 4) is not the same as (4, 3).

EXERCISE 3.2

Question 1.Write the answer of each of the following questions:

(i) What is the name of horizontal and the vertical lines drawn to determine the position of any point in the Cartesian plane?
(ii) What is the name of each part of the plane formed by these two lines?
(iii) Write the name of the point where these two lines intersect.

Questions 2. See Fig.3.14, and write the following:

(i) The coordinates of B.
(ii) The coordinates of C.
(iii) The point identified by the coordinates (–3, –5).
(iv) The point identified by the coordinates (2, – 4).
(v) The abscissa of the point D.
(vi) The ordinate of the point H.
(vii) The coordinates of the point L.
(viii) The coordinates of the point M.


(Mathematics) Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables


EXERCISE 4.1

Question 1. The cost of a notebook is twice the cost of a pen. Write a linear equation in two variables to represent this statement. (Take the cost of a notebook to be Rs x and that of a pen to be Rs y).

Question 2. Express the following linear equations in the form ax + by + c = 0 and indicate the values of a, b and c in each case:

(i) 2x + 3y = 9.35
(ii) x – 5 y – 10 = 0
(iii) –2x + 3y = 6
(iv) x = 3y
(v) 2x = –5y (
vi) 3x + 2 = 0
(vii) y – 2 = 0
(viii) 5 = 2x

EXERCISE 4.2

Question 1.Which one of the following options is true, and why? y = 3x + 5 has

(i) a unique solution
(ii) only two solutions
(iii) infinitely many solutions

Question 2. Write four solutions for each of the following equations:

(i) 2x + y = 7
(ii) πx + y = 9
(iii) x = 4y

Question 3. Check which of the following are solutions of the equation x – 2y = 4 and which are not:

(i) (0, 2)
(ii) (2, 0)
(iii) (4, 0)
(iv) ( 2 , 4 2)
(v) (1, 1)

Question 4. Find the value of k, if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k.

EXERCISE 4.3

Question 1. Draw the graph of eachof the following linear equations in two variables:

(i) x + y = 4
(ii) x – y = 2
(iii) y = 3x
(iv) 3 = 2x + y

Question 2. Give the equations of two lines passing through (2, 14). How many more such lines are there, and why?

Question 3. If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = ax + 7, find the value of a.


Question 4. The taxi fare in a city is as follows: For the first kilometre, the fare is Rs 8 and for the subsequent distance it is Rs 5 per km. Taking the distance covered as x km and total fare as Rs y, write a linear equation for this information, and draw its graph.

Question 5. From the choices given below, choose the equation whose graphs are given in Fig. 4.6 and Fig. 4.7. For Fig. 4. 6 For Fig. 4.7

(i) y = x
(i) y = x + 2
(ii) x + y = 0
(ii) y = x – 2
(iii) y = 2x
(iii) y = –x + 2
(iv) 2 + 3y = 7x
(iv) x + 2y = 6

Question 6. If the work done by a body on application of a constant force is directly proportional to the distance travelled by the body, express this in the form of an equation in two variables and draw the graph of the same by taking the constant force as 5 units. Also read from the graph the work done when the distance travelled by the body is (i) 2 units (ii) 0 unit

Question 7. Yamini and Fatima, two students of Class IX of a school, together contributed Rs 100 towards the Prime Minister's Relief Fund to help the earthquake victims. Write a linear equation which satisfies this data. (You may take their contributions as Rs x and Rs y.) Draw the graph of the same.

Question 8. In countries like USA and Canada, temperature is measured in Fahrenheit, whereas in countries like India, it is measured in Celsius. Here is a linear equation that converts Fahrenheit to Celsius: F = 9 C + 32 5

(i) Draw the graph of the linear equation above using Celsius for x-axis and Fahrenheit for y-axis.
(ii) If the temperature is 30°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
(iii) If the temperature is 95°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(iv) If the temperature is 0°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit and if the temperature is 0°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(v) Is there a temperature which is numerically the same in both Fahrenheit and Celsius? If yes, find it.

EXERCISE 4.4

Question 1. Give the geometric representations of y = 3 as an equation

(i) in one variable
(ii) in two variables

Question 2. Give the geometric representations of 2x + 9 = 0 as an equation

(i) in one variable
(ii) in two variables


(Mathematics) Chapter 7 Triangles


EXERCISE 7.1

Question 1. In quadrilateral ACBD, AC = AD and AB bisects ∠ A (see Fig. 7.16). Show that Δ ABC Δ ABD. What can you say about BC and BD?

Question 2 . ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AD = BC and ∠ DAB = ∠ CBA (see Fig. 7.17). Prove that

(i) Δ ABD Δ BAC
(ii) BD = AC
(iii) ∠ ABD = ∠ BAC.

Question 3. AD and BC are equal perpendiculars to a line segment AB (see Fig. 7.18). Show that CD bisects AB.

Question 4. l and m are two parallel lines intersected by another pair of parallel lines p and q (see Fig. 7.19). Show that Δ ABC Δ CDA.

Question 5. line l is the bisector of an angle ∠ A and B is any point on l. BP and BQ are perpendiculars from B to the arms of ∠ A (see Fig. 7.20). Show that:

(i) Δ APB Δ AQB
(ii) BP = BQ or B is equidistant from the arms of ∠ A.

Question 6. In Fig. 7.21, AC = AE, AB = AD and ∠ BAD = ∠ EAC. Show that BC = DE.

Question 7 . AB is a line segment and P is its mid-point. D and E are points on the same side of AB such that ∠ BAD = ∠ ABE and ∠ EPA = ∠ DPB (see Fig. 7.22). Show that

(i) Δ DAP Δ EBP
(ii) AD = BE

Question 8. In right triangle ABC, right angled at C, M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. C is joined to M and produced to a point D such that DM = CM. Point D is joined to point B (see Fig. 7.23). Show that:

(i) Δ AMC Δ BMD
(ii) ∠ DBC is a right angle.
(iii) Δ DBC Δ ACB
(iv) CM = 1 2 AB

EXERCISE 7.2

Question 1. In an isosceles triangle ABC, with AB = AC, the bisectors of ∠ B and ∠ C intersect each other at O. Join A to O. Show that :

(i) OB = OC
(ii) AO bisects ∠ A

Question 2. In Δ ABC, AD is the perpendicular bisector of BC (see Fig. 7.30). Show that Δ ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC.

Question 3. ABC is an isosceles triangle in which altitudes BE and CF are drawn to equal sides AC and AB respectively (see Fig. 7.31). Show that these altitudes are equal.

Question 4. ABC is a triangle in which altitudes BE and CF to sides AC and AB are equal (see Fig. 7.32). Show that

(i) Δ ABE Δ ACF
(ii) AB = AC, i.e., ABC is an isosceles triangle.

Question 5. ABC and DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC (see Fig. 7.33). Show that ∠ ABD = ∠ ACD.

Question 6. ΔABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC. Side BA is produced to D such that AD = AB (see Fig. 7.34). Show that ∠ BCD is a right angle. 7. ABC is a right angled triangle in which ∠ A = 90° and AB = AC. Find ∠ B and ∠ C.

Question 7. Show that the angles of an equilateral triangle are 60°each.

EXERCISE 7.3

Question 1. Δ ABC and Δ DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC and vertices A and D are on the same side of BC (see Fig. 7.39). If AD is extended to intersect BC at P, show that

(i) Δ ABD Δ ACD
(ii) Δ ABP Δ ACP
(iii) AP bisects ∠ A as well as ∠ D.
(iv) AP is the perpendicular bisector of BC.

Question 2. AD is an altitude of an isosceles triangle ABC in which AB = AC. Show that

(i) AD bisects BC
(ii) AD bisects ∠ A.

Question 3. Two sides AB and BC and median AM of one triangle ABC are respectively equal to sides PQ and QR and median PN of Δ PQR (see Fig. 7.40). Show that:

(i) Δ ABM Δ PQN
(ii) Δ ABC Δ PQR

Question 4.
BE and CF are two equal altitudes of a triangle ABC. Using RHS congruence rule, prove that the triangle ABC is isosceles.

Question 5. ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. Draw AP ⊥ BC to show that ∠ B = ∠ C.

EXERCISE 7.4

Question 1. Show that in a right angled triangle, the hypotenuse is the longest side.

Question 2. In Fig. 7.48, sides AB and AC of Δ ABC are extended to points P and Q respectively. Also, ∠ PBC < ∠ QCB. Show that AC > AB. 3. In Fig. 7.49, ∠ B < ∠ A and ∠ C < ∠ D. Show that AD < BC.

Question 3. AB and CD are respectively the smallest and longest sides of a quadrilateral ABCD (see Fig. 7.50). Show that ∠ A > ∠ C and ∠ B > ∠ D.

Question 4. In Fig 7.51, PR > PQ and PS bisects ∠ QPR. Prove that ∠ PSR > ∠ PSQ.

Question 5. Show that of all line segments drawn from a given point not on it, the perpendicular line segment is the shortest.

EXERCISE 7.5

Question 1 . ABC is a triangle. Locate a point in the interior of Δ ABC which is equidistant from all the vertices of Δ ABC.

Question 2. In a triangle locate a point in its interior which is equidistant from all the sides of the triangle.

Question 3. In a huge park, people are concentrated at three points (see Fig. 7.52):

A : where there are different slides and swings for children,
B : near which a man-made lake is situated,
C : which is near to a large parking and exit. Where should an icecream parlour be set up so that maximum number of persons can approach it? (Hint : The parlour should be equidistant from A, B and C)

Question 4. Complete the hexagonal and star shaped Rangolies [see Fig. 7.53(i) and (ii)] by filling them with as many equilateral triangles of side 1 cm as you can. Count the number of triangles in each case. Which has more triangles?


(Mathematics) Chapter 8 Quadrilaterals


EXERCISE 8.1

Question 1. The angles of quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 9 : 13. Find all the angles of the quadrilateral.

Question 2. If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal, then show that it is a rectangle.

Question 3. Show that if the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other at right angles, then it is a rhombus.

Question 4. Show that the diagonals of a square are equal and bisect each other at right angles.

Question 5. Show that if the diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal and bisect each other at right angles, then it is a square.

Question 6. Diagonal AC of a parallelogram ABCD bisects ∠ A (see Fig. 8.19). Show that

(i) it bisects ∠ C also
(ii) ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 7. ABCD is a rhombus. Show that diagonal AC bisects ∠ A as well as ∠ C and diagonal BD bisects ∠ B as well as ∠ D.

Question 8. ABCD is a rectangle in which diagonal AC bisects ∠ A as well as ∠ C. Show that:

(i) ABCD is a square
(ii) diagonal BD bisects ∠ B as well as ∠ D.

Question 9. In parallelogram ABCD, two points P and Q are taken on diagonal BD such that DP = BQ (see Fig. 8.20). Show that:

(i) Δ APD Δ CQB
(ii) AP = CQ
(iii) Δ AQB Δ CPD
(iv) AQ = CP
(v) APCQ is a parallelogram

Question 10. ABCD is a parallelogram and AP and CQ are perpendiculars from vertices A and C on diagonal BD (see Fig. 8.21). Show that :

(i) Δ APB Δ CQD
(ii) AP = CQ

Question 11. In Δ ABC and Δ DEF, AB = DE, AB || DE, BC = EF and BC || EF. Vertices A, B and C are joined to vertices D, E and F respectively (see Fig. 8.22). Show that :

(i) quadrilateral ABED is a parallelogram
(ii) quadrilateral BEFC is a parallelogram
(iii) AD || CF and AD = CF
(iv) quadrilateral ACFD is a parallelogram
(v) AC = DF
(vi) Δ ABC Δ DEF.

Question 12. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AD = BC (see Fig. 8.23). Show that:

(i) ∠ A = ∠ B
(ii) ∠ C = ∠ D
(iii) Δ ABC Δ BAD
(iv) diagonal AC = diagonal BD [Hint : Extend AB and draw a line through C parallel to DA intersecting AB produced at E.]

EXERCISE 8.2

Question 1. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which P, Q, R and S are mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA (see Fig 8.29). AC is a diagonal. Show that :

(i) SR || AC and SR = 1 2 AC
(ii) PQ = SR
(iii) PQRS is a parallelogram.

Question 2. ABCD is a rhombus and P, Q, R and S are ©wthe mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Show that the quadrilateral PQRS is a rectangle.

Question 3. ABCD is a rectangle and P, Q, R and S are mid-points of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Show that the quadrilateral PQRS is a rhombus.

Question 4. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, BD is a diagonal and E is the mid-point of AD. A line is drawn through E parallel to AB intersecting BC at F (see Fig. 8.30). Show that F is the mid-point of BC.

Question 5. In a parallelogram ABCD, E and F are the mid-points of sides AB and CD respectively (see Fig. 8.31). Show that the line segments AF and EC trisect the diagonal BD.

Question 6. Show that the line segments joining the mid-points of the opposite sides of a quadrilateral bisect each other.

Question 7. ABC is a triangle right angled at C. A line through the mid-point M of hypotenuse AB and parallel to BC intersects AC at D. Show that:

(i) D is the mid-point of AC
(ii) MD ⊥ AC
(iii) CM = MA = 1 2 AB


(Mathematics) Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles


EXERCISE 9.1

Question1. Which of the following figures lie on the same base and between the same parallels. In such a case, write the common base and the two parallels. 

EXERCISE 9.2

Question 1. In Fig. 9.15, ABCD is a parallelogram, AE ⊥ DC and CF ⊥ AD. If AB = 16 cm, AE = 8 cm and CF = 10 cm, find AD.

Question 2. If E,F,G and H are respectively the mid-points of the sides of a parallelogram ABCD, show that ar (EFGH) = 1 ar (ABCD) 2 .

Question 3. P and Q are any two points lying on the sides DC and AD respectively of a parallelogram ABCD. Show that ar (APB) = ar (BQC).

Question 4. In Fig. 9.16, P is a point in the interior of a parallelogram ABCD. Show that:

(i) ar (APB) + ar (PCD) = 1 ar (ABCD) 2
(ii) ar (APD) + ar (PBC) = ar (APB) + ar (PCD) [Hint : Through P, draw a line parallel to AB.]

Question 5. . In Fig. 9.17, PQRS and ABRS are parallelograms and X is any point on side BR. Show that

(i) ar (PQRS) = ar (ABRS)
(ii) ar (AX S) = 1 ar (PQRS)

Question 6. A farmer was having a field in the form of a parallelogram PQRS. She took any point A on RS and joined it to points P and Q. In how many parts the fields is divided? What are the shapes of these parts? The farmer wants to sow wheat and pulses in equal portions of the field separately. How should she do it?

EXERCISE 9.3

Question 1. In Fig.9.23, E is any point on median AD of a Δ ABC. Show that ar (ABE) = ar (ACE).

Question 2. In a triangle ABC, E is the mid-point of median AD. Show that ar (BED) = 1 ar(ABC) 4 .

Question 2. Show that the diagonals of a parallelogram divide it into four triangles of equal area.

Question 4. In Fig. 9.24, ABC and ABD are two triangles on the same base AB. If line- segment CD is bisected by AB at O, show that ar(ABC) = ar (ABD).

Question 5. D, E and F are respectively the mid-points of the sides BC, CA and AB of a Δ ABC. Show that

(i) BDEF is a parallelogram.
(ii) ar (DEF) = 1 4 ar (ABC)
(iii) ar (BDEF) = 1 2 ar (ABC)

Question 6. In Fig. 9.25, diagonals AC and BD of quadrilateral ABCD intersect at O such that OB = OD. If AB = CD, then show that:

(i) ar (DOC) = ar (AOB)
(ii) ar (DCB) = ar (ACB)
(iii) DA || CB or ABCD is a parallelogram. [Hint : From D and B, draw perpendiculars to AC.]

Question 7. D and E are points on sides AB and AC respectively of Δ ABC such that ar (DBC) = ar (EBC). Prove that DE || BC.

Question 8. XY is a line parallel to side BC of a triangle ABC. If BE || AC and CF || AB meet XY at E and F respectively, show that ar (ABE) = ar (ACF)

Question 9. The side AB of a parallelogram ABCD is produced to any point P. A line through A and parallel to CP meets CB produced at Q and then parallelogram PBQR is completed (see Fig. 9.26). Show that ar (ABCD) = ar (PBQR). [Hint : Join AC and PQ. Now compare ar (ACQ) and ar (APQ).]

Question 10. Diagonals AC and BD of a trapezium ABCD with AB || DC intersect each other at O. Prove that ar (AOD) = ar (BOC).

Question 11. In Fig. 9.27, ABCDE is a pentagon. A line through B parallel to AC meets DC produced at F. Show that

(i) ar (ACB) = ar (ACF)
(ii) ar (AEDF) = ar (ABCDE)

Question 12. A villager Itwaari has a plot of land of the shape of a quadrilateral. The Gram Panchayat of the village decided to take over some portion of his plot from one of the corners to construct a Health Centre. Itwaari agrees to the above proposal with the condition that he should be given equal amount of land in lieu of his land adjoining his plot so as to form a triangular plot. Explain how this proposal will be implemented.

Question 13. ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC. A line parallel to AC intersects AB at X and BC at Y. Prove that ar (ADX) = ar (ACY). [Hint : Join CX.]

Question 14. In Fig.9.28, AP || BQ || CR. Prove that ar (AQC) = ar (PBR).

Question 15. . Diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect at O in such a way that ar (AOD) = ar (BOC). Prove that ABCD is a trapezium.

Question 16. In Fig.9.29, ar (DRC) = ar (DPC) and ar (BDP) = ar (ARC). Show that both the quadrilaterals ABCD and DCPR are trapeziums.

EXERCISE 9.4

Question 1. Parallelogram ABCD and rectangle ABEF are on the same base AB and have equal areas. Show that the perimeter of the parallelogram is greater than that of the rectangle.

Question 2. In Fig. 9.30, D and E are two points on BC such that BD = DE = EC. Show that ar (ABD) = ar (ADE) = ar (AEC). Can you now answer the question that you have left in the 'Introduction' of this chapter, whether the field of Budhia has been actually divided into three parts of equal area? triangles ABD, ADE and AEC of equal areas. In the same way, by dividing BC into n equal parts and joining the points of division so obtained to the opposite vertex of BC, you can divide ΔABC into n triangles of equal areas.]

Question 3. In Fig. 9.31, ABCD, DCFE and ABFE are parallelograms. Show that ar (ADE) = ar (BCF).

Question 4. In Fig. 9.32, ABCD is a parallelogram and BC is produced to a point Q such that AD = CQ. If AQ intersect DC at P, show that ar (BPC) = ar (DPQ). [Hint : Join AC.]

Question 5. In Fig.9.33, ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. If AE intersects BC at F, show that:

(i) ar (BDE) = 1 4 ar (ABC)
(ii) ar (BDE) = 1 2 ar (BAE)
(iii) ar (ABC) = 2 ar (BEC)
(iv) ar (BFE) = ar (AFD)
(v) ar (BFE) = 2 ar (FED)
(vi) ar (FED) = 1 8 ar (AFC) [Hint : Join EC and AD. Show that BE || AC and DE || AB, etc.]

Question 6. Diagonals AC and BD of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at P. Show that ar (APB) × ar (CPD) = ar (APD) × ar (BPC). [Hint : From A and C, draw perpendiculars to BD.]

Question 7. P and Q are respectively the mid-points of sides AB and BC of a triangle ABC and R is the mid-point of AP, show that :

(i) ar (PRQ) = 1 2 ar (ARC)
(ii) ar (RQC) = 3 8 ar (ABC)
(iii) ar (PBQ) = ar (ARC)

Question 8. In Fig. 9.34, ABC is a right triangle right angled at A. BCED, ACFG and ABMN are squares on the sides BC, CA and AB respectively. Line segment AX ⊥ DE meets BC at Y. Show that:

(i) Δ MBC Δ ABD
(ii) ar (BYXD) = 2 ar (MBC)
(iii) ar (BYXD) = ar (ABMN)
(iv) Δ FCB Δ ACE
(v) ar (CYXE) = 2 ar (FCB)
(vi) ar (CYXE) = ar (ACFG)
(vii) ar (BCED) = ar (ABMN) + ar (ACFG) Note : Result
(vii) is the famous Theorem of Pythagoras. You shall learn a simpler proof of this theorem in Class X.


(Mathematics) Chapter 10 Circles


EXERCISE 10.1

Question 1. Fill in the blanks:

(i) The centre of a circle lies in of the circle. (exterior/ interior)
(ii) A point, whose distance from the centre of a circle is greater than its radius lies in of the circle. (exterior/ interior)
(iii) The longest chord of a circle is a of the circle.
(iv) An arc is a when its ends are the ends of a diameter.
(v) Segment of a circle is the region between an arc and of the circle.
(vi) A circle divides the plane, on which it lies, in parts.

Question 2. Write True or False: Give reasons for your answers.

(i) Line segment joining the centre to any point on the circle is a radius of the circle.
(ii) A circle has only finite number of equal chords.
(iii) If a circle is divided into three equal arcs, each is a major arc.
(iv) A chord of a circle, which is twice as long as its radius, is a diameter of the circle.
(v) Sector is the region between the chord and its corresponding arc.
(vi) A circle is a plane figure.

EXERCISE 10.2

Question 1. Recall that two circles are congruent if they have the same radii. Prove that equal chords of congruent circles subtend equal angles at their centres.

Question 2. Prove that if chords of congruent circles subtend equal angles at their centres, then the chords are equal.

EXERCISE 10.3

Question 1. Draw different pairs of circles. How many points does each pair have in common? What is the maximum number of common points?

Question 2. Suppose you are given a circle. Give a construction to find its centre.

Question 3. If two circles intersect at two points, prove that their centres lie on the perpendicular

EXERCISE 10.4

Question 1. Two circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm intersect at two points and the distance between their centres is 4 cm. Find the length of the common chord.

Question 2. If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the segments of one chord are equal to corresponding segments of the other chord.

Question 3. If two equal chords of a circle intersect within the circle, prove that the line joining the point of intersection to the centre makes equal angles with the chords.

Question 4.
If a line intersects two concentric circles (circles with the same centre) with centre O at A, B, C and D, prove that AB = CD (see Fig. 10.25).

Question 5. Three girls Reshma, Salma and Mandip are playing a game by standing on a circle of radius 5m drawn in a park. Reshma throws a ball to Salma, Salma to Mandip, Mandip to Reshma. If the distance between Reshma and Salma and between Salma and Mandip is 6m each, what is the distance between Reshma and Mandip?

Question 6. A circular park of radius 20m is situated in a colony. Three boys Ankur, Syed and David are sitting at equal distance on its boundary each having a toy telephone in his hands to talk each other. Find the length of the string of each phone.

EXERCISE 10.5

Question 1. In Fig. 10.36, A,B and C are three points on a circle with centre O such that ∠ BOC = 30° and ∠ AOB = 60°. If D is a point on the circle other than the arc ABC, find ∠ADC

Question 2. A chord of a circle is equal to the radius of the circle. Find the angle subtended by the chord at a point on the minor arc and also at a point on the major arc.

Question 3. In Fig. 10.37, ∠ PQR = 100°, where P, Q and R are points on a circle with centre O. Find ∠ OPR.

Question 4. In Fig. 10.38, ∠ ABC = 69°, ∠ ACB = 31°, find ∠ BDC.

Question 5. In Fig. 10.39, A, B, C and D are four points on a circle. AC and BD intersect at a point E such that ∠ BEC = 130° and ∠ ECD = 20°. Find ∠ BAC.

Question 6. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect at a point E. If ∠ DBC = 70°, ∠ BAC is 30°, find ∠ BCD. Further, if AB = BC, find ∠ ECD.

Question 7. If diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral are diameters of the circle through the vertices of the quadrilateral, prove that it is a rectangle.

Question 8. If the non-parallel sides of a trapezium are equal, prove that it is cyclic.

Question 9. Two circles intersect at two points B and C. Through B, two line segments ABD and PBQ are drawn to intersect the circles at A, D and P, Q respectively (see Fig. 10.40). Prove that ∠ ACP = ∠ QCD.

Question 10. If circles are drawn taking two sides of a triangle as diameters, prove that the point of intersection of these circles lie on the third side.

Question 11. ABC and ADC are two right triangles with common hypotenuse AC. Prove that ∠ CAD = ∠ CBD.

Question 12. Prove that a cyclic parallelogram is a rectangle.

EXERCISE 10.6

Question 1. Prove that the line of centres of two intersecting circles subtends equal angles at the two points of intersection.

Question 2. Two chords AB and CD of lengths 5 cm and 11 cm respectively of a circle are parallel to each other and are on opposite sides of its centre. If the distance between AB and CD is 6 cm, find the radius of the circle.

Question 3. The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle are 6 cm and 8 cm. If the smaller chord is at distance 4 cm from the centre, what is the distance of the other chord from the centre?

Question 4. Let the vertex of an angle ABC be located outside a circle and let the sides of the angle intersect equal chords AD and CE with the circle. Prove that ∠ABC is equal to half the difference of the angles subtended by the chords AC and DE at the centre.

Question 5. Prove that the circle drawn with any side of a rhombus as diameter, passes through the point of intersection of its diagonals.

Question 6. ABCD is a parallelogram. The circle through A, B and C intersect CD (produced if necessary) at E. Prove that AE = AD.

Question 7. AC and BD are chords of a circle which bisect each other. Prove that :

(i) AC and BD are diameters
(ii) ABCD is a rectangle.

Question 8. Bisectors of angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC intersect its circumcircle at D, E and F respectively. Prove that the angles of the triangle DEF are 90° – 1 2 A, 90° – 1 2 B and 90° – 1 2 C.


(Mathematics) Chapter 11 Constructions


EXERCISE 11.1

Question 1. Construct an angle of 900 at the initial point of a given ray and justify the construction.

Question 2. Construct an angle of 450 at the initial point of a given ray and justify the construction.

Question 3. Construct the angles of the following measurements:
(i) 30°
(ii) 22 1 2 °
(iii) 15°

Question 4. Construct the following angles and verify by measuring them by a protractor:
(i) 75°
(ii) 105°
(iii) 135°

Question 5. Construct an equilateral triangle, given its side and justify the construction. 

EXERCISE 11.2

Question 1. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 7cm, ∠B = 75° and AB + AC = 13 cm.

Question 2. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, ∠B = 45° and AB – AC = 3.5 cm.

Question 3. Construct a triangle PQR in which QR = 6cm, ∠Q = 60° and PR – PQ = 2cm.

Question 4. Construct a triangle XYZ in which ∠Y = 30°, ∠Z = 90° and XY + YZ + ZX = 11 cm.

Question 5. Construct a right triangle whose base is 12cm and sum of its hypotenuse and other side is 18 cm.


(Mathematics) Chapter 12 Heron's Formula



EXERCISE 12.1

Question 1. A traffic signal board, indicating 'SCHOOL AHEAD', is an equilateral triangle with side 'a'. Find the area of the signal board, using Heron's formula. If its perimeter is 180 cm, what will be the area of the signal board?

Question 2. The triangular side walls of a flyover have been used for advertisements. The sides of the walls are 122 m, 22 m and 120 m (see Fig. 12.9). The advertisements yield an earning of Rs 5000 per m2 per year. A company hired one of its walls for 3 months. How much rent did it pay? 

Question 3. There is a slide in a park. One of its side walls has been painted in some colour with a message "KEEP THE PARK GREEN AND CLEAN" (see Fig. 12.10 ). If the sides of the wall are 15 m, 11 m and 6 m, find the area painted in colour. Fig. 12.10

Question 4. Find the area of a triangle two sides of which are 18cm and 10cm and the perimeter is 42cm.

Question 5. Sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 12 : 17 : 25 and its perimeter is 540cm. Find its area. 6. An isosceles triangle has perimeter 30 cm and each of the equal sides is 12 cm. Find the area of the triangle.

EXERCISE 12.2

Question 1. A park, in the shape of a quadrilateral ABCD, has ∠ C = 90º, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD = 5 m and AD = 8 m. How much area does it occupy?

Question 2. Find the area of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm, CD = 4 cm, DA = 5 cm and AC = 5 cm.

Question 3. Radha made a picture of an aeroplane with coloured paper as shown in Fig 12.15. Find the total area of the paper used.

Question 4. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the same area. If the sides of the triangle are 26 cm, 28 cm and 30 cm, and the parallelogram stands on the base 28 cm, find the height of the parallelogram. Fig. 12.14

Question 5. A rhombus shaped field has green grass for 18 cows to graze. If each side of the rhombus is 30 m and its longer diagonal is 48 m, how much area of grass field will each cow be getting?

Question 6. An umbrella is made by stitching 10 triangular pieces of cloth of two different colours (see Fig. 12.16), each piece measuring 20 cm, 50 cm and 50 cm. How much cloth of each colour is required for the umbrella? 7. A kite in the shape of a square with a diagonal 32 cm and an isosceles triangle of base 8 cm and sides 6 cm each is to be made of three different shades as shown in Fig. 12.1

Question 7. How much paper of each shade has been used in it?

Question 8. A floral design on a floor is made up of 16 tiles which are triangular, the sides of the triangle being 9 cm, 28 cm and 35 cm (see Fig. 12.18). Find the cost of polishing the tiles at the rate of 50p per cm2.

Question 9. A field is in the shape of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 25 m and 10 m. The non-parallel sides are 14 m and 13 m. Find the area of the field. 


(Mathematics) Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes


EXERCISE 13.1

Question 1. A plastic box 1.5 m long, 1.25 m wide and 65 cm deep is to be made. It is to be open at the top. Ignoring the thickness of the plastic sheet, determine:

(i) The area of the sheet required for making the box.
(ii) The cost of sheet for it, if a sheet measuring 1m2 costs Rs 20.

Question 2. The length, breadth and height of a room are 5 m, 4 m and 3 m respectively. Find the cost of white washing the walls of the room and the ceiling at the rate of Rs 7.50 per m2.

Question 3. The floor of a rectangular hall has a perimeter 250 m. If the cost of painting the four walls at the rate of Rs 10 per m2 is Rs 15000, find the height of the hall. [Hint : Area of the four walls = Lateral surface area.]

Question 4. The paint in a certain container is sufficient to paint an area equal to 9.375 m2. How many bricks of dimensions 22.5 cm × 10 cm × 7.5 cm can be painted out of this container?

Question 5. A cubical box has each edge 10 cm and another cuboidal box is 12.5 cm long, 10 cm wide and 8 cm high.

(i) Which box has the greater lateral surface area and by how much?
(ii) Which box has the smaller total surface area and by how much?

Question 6. A small indoor greenhouse (herbarium) is made entirely of glass panes (including base) held together with tape. It is 30 cm long, 25 cm wide and 25 cm high.

(i) What is the area of the glass?
(ii) How much of tape is needed for all the 12 edges?

Question 7. Shanti Sweets Stall was placing an order for making cardboard boxes for packing their sweets. Two sizes of boxes were required. The bigger of dimensions 25 cm × 20 cm × 5 cm and the smaller of dimensions 15 cm × 12 cm × 5 cm. For all the overlaps, 5% of the total surface area is required extra. If the cost of the cardboard is Rs 4 for 1000 cm2, find the cost of cardboard required for supplying 250 boxes of each kind.

Question 8. Parveen wanted to make a temporary shelter for her car, by making a box-like structure with tarpaulin that covers all the four sides and the top of the car (with the front face as a flap which can be rolled up). Assuming that the stitching margins are very small, and therefore negligible, how much tarpaulin would be required to make the shelter of height 2.5 m, with base dimensions 4 m × 3 m?

EXERCISE 13.2

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 cm2. Find the diameter of the base of the cylinder.

Question 2. It is required to make a closed cylindrical tank of height 1 m and base diameter 140 cm from a metal sheet. How many square metres of the sheet are required for the same?

Question 3. A metal pipe is 77 cm long. The inner diameter of a cross section is 4 cm, the outer diameter being 4.4 cm (see Fig. 13.11). Find its

(i) inner curved surface area,
(ii) outer curved surface area,
(iii) total surface area.

Question 4. The diameter of a roller is 84 cm and its length is 120 cm. It takes 500 complete revolutions to move once over to level a playground. Find the area of the playground in m2.

Question 5. A cylindrical pillar is 50 cm in diameter and 3.5 m in height. Find the cost of painting the curved surface of the pillar at the rate of Rs 12.50 per m2.

Question 6. Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 m2. If the radius of the base of the cylinder is 0.7 m, find its height.

Question 7. The inner diameter of a circular well is 3.5 m. It is 10 m deep. Find

(i) its inner curved surface area,
(ii) the cost of plastering this curved surface at the rate of Rs 40 per m2.

Question 8. In a hot water heating system, there is a cylindrical pipe of length 28 m and diameter 5 cm. Find the total radiating surface in the system.

Question 9. Find

(i) the lateral or curved surface area of a closed cylindrical petrol storage tank that is 4.2 m in diameter and 4.5 m high.
(ii) how much steel was actually used, if 1 12 of the steel actually used was wasted in making the tank.

Question 10. In Fig. 13.12, you see the frame of a lampshade. It is to be covered with a decorative cloth. The frame has a base diameter of 20 cm and height of 30 cm. A margin of 2.5 cm is to be given for folding it over the top and bottom of the frame. Find how much cloth is required for covering the lampshade.

Question 11. The students of a Vidyalaya were asked to participate in a competition for making and decorating penholders in the shape of a cylinder with a base, using cardboard. Each penholder was to be of radius 3 cm and height 10.5 cm. The Vidyalaya was to supply the competitors with cardboard. If there were 35 competitors, how much cardboard was required to be bought for the competition?

EXERCISE 13.3

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Diameter of the base of a cone is 10.5 cm and its slant height is 10 cm. Find its curved surface area.

Question 2. Find the total surface area of a cone, if its slant height is 21 m and diameter of its base is 24 m. 3. Curved surface area of a cone is 308 cm2 and its slant height is 14 cm. Find

(i) radius of the base and
(ii) total surface area of the cone.

Question 4. A conical tent is 10 m high and the radius of its base is 24 m. Find

(i) slant height of the tent.
(ii) cost of the canvas required to make the tent, if the cost of 1 m2 canvas is Rs 70.

Question 5. What length of tarpaulin 3 m wide will be required to make conical tent of height 8 m and base radius 6 m? Assume that the extra length of material that will be required for stitching margins and wastage in cutting is approximately 20 cm (Use π = 3.14).

Question 6. The slant height and base diameter of a conical tomb are 25 m and 14 m respectively. Find the cost of white-washing its curved surface at the rate of Rs 210 per 100 m2.

Question 7. A joker's cap is in the form of a right circular cone of base radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Find the area of the sheet required to make 10 such caps.

Question 8. A bus stop is barricaded from the remaining part of the road, by using 50 hollow cones made of recycled cardboard. Each cone has a base diameter of 40 cm and height 1 m. If the outer side of each of the cones is to be painted and the cost of painting is Rs 12 per m2, what will be the cost of painting all these cones? (Use π = 3.14 and take 1.04 = 1.02)

EXERCISE 13.4

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Find the surface area of a sphere of radius:

(i) 10.5 cm
(ii) 5.6 cm
(iii) 14 cm

Question 2. Find the surface area of a sphere of diameter:

(i) 14 cm
(ii) 21 cm
(iii) 3.5 m

Question 3. Find the total surface area of a hemisphere of radius 10 cm. (Use π = 3.14)

Question 4. The radius of a spherical balloon increases from 7 cm to 14 cm as air is being pumped into it. Find the ratio of surface areas of the balloon in the two cases.

Question 5. A hemispherical bowl made of brass has inner diameter 10. 5 cm. Find the cost of tin-plating it on the inside at the rate of Rs 16 per 100 cm2.

Question 6. Find the radius of a sphere whose surface area is 154 cm2.

Question 7. The diameter of the moon is approximately one fourth of the diameter of the earth. Find the ratio of their surface areas.

Question 8. A hemispherical bowl is made of steel, 0.25 cm thick. The inner radius of the bowl is 5 cm. Find the outer curved surface area of the bowl.

Question 9. A right circular cylinder just encloses a sphere of radius r (see Fig. 13.22).Find

(i) surface area of the sphere,
(ii) curved surface area of the cylinder,
(iii) ratio of the areas obtained in
(i) and (ii). cm × 2.5 cm × 1.5 cm. What will be the volume of a packet containing 12 such boxes?

EXERCISE 13.5

Question 1. A matchbox measures 4 cm × 2.5 cm × 1.5 cm. What will be the volume of a packet containing 12 such boxes?

Question 2. A cuboidal water tank is 6 m long, 5 m wide and 4.5 m deep. How many litres of water can it hold? (1 m3 = 1000 l)

Question 3. A cuboidal vessel is 10 m long and 8 m wide. How high must it be made to hold 380 cubic metres of a liquid?

Question 4. Find the cost of digging a cuboidal pit 8 m long, 6 m broad and 3 m deep at the rate of Rs 30 per m3.

Question 5. The capacity of a cuboidal tank is 50000 litres of water. Find the breadth of the tank, if its length and depth are respectively 2.5 m and 10 m.

Question 6. A village, having a population of 4000, requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m × 15 m × 6 m. For how many days will the water of this tank last?

Question 7. A godown measures 40 m × 25 m × 10 m. Find the maximum number of wooden crates each measuring 1.5 m × 1.25 m × 0.5 m that can be stored in the godown.

Question 8. A solid cube of side 12 cm is cut into eight cubes of equal volume. What will be the side of the new cube? Also, find the ratio between their surface areas. 9. A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water will fall into the sea in a minute?

EXERCISE 13.6

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. The circumference of the base of a cylindrical vessel is 132 cm and its height is 25 cm. How many litres of water can it hold? (1000 cm3 = 1l)

Question 2. The inner diameter of a cylindrical wooden pipe is 24 cm and its outer diameter is 28 cm. The length of the pipe is 35 cm. Find the mass of the pipe, if 1 cm3 of wood has a mass of 0.6 g.

Question 3. A soft drink is available in two packs - (i) a tin can with a rectangular base of length5 cm and width 4 cm, having a height of 15 cm and (ii) a plastic cylinder with circular base of diameter 7 cm and height 10 cm. Which container has greater capacity and by how much?

Question 4. If the lateral surface of a cylinder is 94.2 cm2 and its height is 5 cm, then find (i) radius of its base (ii) its volume. (Use π = 3.14)

Question 5. It costs Rs 2200 to paint the inner curved surface of a cylindrical vessel 10 m deep. If the cost of painting is at the rate of Rs 20 per m2, find

(i) inner curved surface area of the vessel,
(ii) radius of the base,
(iii) capacity of the vessel.

Question 6. The capacity of a closed cylindrical vessel of height 1 m is 15.4 litres. How many square metres of metal sheet would be needed to make it?

Question 7. A lead pencil consists of a cylinder of wood with a solid cylinder of graphite filled in the interior. The diameter of the pencil is 7 mm and the diameter of the graphite is 1 mm. If the length of the pencil is 14 cm, find the volume of the wood and that of the graphite.

Question 8. A patient in a hospital is given soup daily in a cylindrical bowl of diameter 7 cm. If the bowl is filled with soup to a height of 4 cm, how much soup the hospital has to prepare daily to serve 250 patients

EXERCISE 13.7

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Find the volume of the right circular cone with (i) radius 6 cm, height 7 cm (ii) radius 3.5 cm, height 12 cm

Question 2. Find the capacity in litres of a conical vessel with (i) radius 7 cm, slant height 25 cm (ii) height 12 cm, slant height 13 cm

Question 3. The height of a cone is 15 cm. If its volume is 1570 cm3, find the radius of the base. (Use π = 3.14)

Question 4. If the volume of a right circular cone of height 9 cm is 48 π cm3, find the diameter of its base.

Question 5. A conical pit of top diameter 3.5 m is 12 m deep. What is its capacity in kilolitres?

Question 6. The volume of a right circular cone is 9856 cm3. If the diameter of the base is 28 cm, find

(i) height of the cone
(ii) slant height of the cone
(iii) curved surface area of the cone

Question7. A right triangle ABC with sides 5 cm, 12 cm and 13 cm is revolved about the side 12 cm. Find the volume of the solid so obtained.

Question 8. If the triangle ABC in the Question 7 above is revolved about the side 5 cm, then find the volume of the solid so obtained. Find also the ratio of the volumes of the two solids obtained in Questions 7 and 8.

Question 9. A heap of wheat is in the form of a cone whose diameter is 10.5 m and height is 3 m. Find its volume. The heap is to be covered by canvas to protect it from rain. Find the area of the canvas required.

EXERCISE 13.8

Assume π = 22/7 , unless stated otherwise.

Question 1. Find the volume of a sphere whose radius is (i) 7 cm (ii) 0.63 m

Question 2. Find the amount of water displaced by a solid spherical ball of diameter (i) 28 cm (ii) 0.21 m

Question 3. The diameter of a metallic ball is 4.2 cm. What is the mass of the ball, if the density of the metal is 8.9 g per cm3?

Question 4. The diameter of the moon is approximately one-fourth of the diameter of the earth. What fraction of the volume of the earth is the volume of the moon?

Question 5. How many litres of milk can a hemispherical bowl of diameter 10.5 cm hold?

Question 6. A hemispherical tank is made up of an iron sheet 1 cm thick. If the inner radius is 1 m, then find the volume of the iron used to make the tank.

Question 7. Find the volume of a sphere whose surface area is 154 cm2.

Question 8. A dome of a building is in the form of a hemisphere. From inside, it was white-washed at the cost of Rs 498.96. If the cost of white-washing is Rs 2.00 per square metre, find the
(i) inside surface area of the dome,
(ii) volume of the air inside the dome.

Question 9. Twenty seven solid iron spheres, each of radius r and surface area S are melted to form a sphere with surface area S. Find the (i) radius r of the new sphere, (ii) ratio of S and S′.

Question 10. A capsule of medicine is in the shape of a sphere of diameter 3.5 mm. How much medicine (in mm3) is needed to fill this capsule?

EXERCISE 13.9

Question 1. A wooden bookshelf has external dimensions as follows: Height = 110 cm, Depth = 25 cm, Breadth = 85 cm (see Fig. 13.31). The thickness of the plank is 5 cm everywhere. The external faces are to be polished and the inner faces are to be painted. If the rate of polishing is 20 paise per cm2 and the rate of painting is 10 paise per cm2, find the total expenses required for polishing and painting the surface of the bookshelf.

Question 2. The front compound wall of a house is decorated by wooden spheres of diameter 21 cm, placed on small supports as shown in Fig 13.32. Eight such spheres are used for this purpose, and are to be painted silver. Each support is a cylinder of radius 1.5 cm and height 7 cm and is to be painted black. Find the cost of paint required if silver paint costs 25 paise per cm2 and black paint costs 5 paise per cm2.

Question 3. The diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%. By what per cent does its curved surface area decrease?


(Mathematics) Chapter 14 Statistics


EXERCISE 14.1

Question 1. Give five examples of data that you can collect from your day-to-day life. 2. Classify the data in Q.1 above as primary or secondary data.

EXERCISE 14.2

Question 1. The blood groups of 30 students of Class VIII are recorded as follows:

A, B, O, O, AB, O, A, O, B, A, O, B, A, O, O,
A, AB, O, A, A, O, O, AB, B, A, O, B, A, B, O.
Represent this data in the form of a frequency distribution table. Which is the most common, and which is the rarest, blood group among these students?

Question 2. The distance (in km) of 40 engineers from their residence to their place of work were found as follows:

5 3 10 20 25 11 13 7 12 31
19 10 12 17 18 11 32 17 16 2
7 9 7 8 3 5 12 15 18 3
12 14 2 9 6 15 15 7 6 12

Construct a grouped frequency distribution table with class size 5 for the data given above taking the first interval as 05 (5 not included). What main features do you observe from this tabular representation?

Question 3. The relative humidity (in %) of a certain city for a month of 30 days was as follows:

98.1 98.6 99.2 90.3 86.5 95.3 92.9 96.3 94.2 95.1

89.2 92.3 97.1 93.5 92.7 95.1 97.2 93.3 95.2 97.3

96.2 92.1 84.9 90.2 95.7 98.3 97.3 96.1 92.1 89

(i) Construct a grouped frequency distribution table with classes 84 - 86, 86 - 88, etc.
(ii) Which month or season do you think this data is about?
(iii) What is the range of this data?

Question 4. The heights of 50 students, measured to the nearest centimetres, have been found to be as follows:

161 150 154 165 168 161 154 162 150 151
162 164 171 165 158 154 156 172 160 170
153 159 161 170 162 165 166 168 165 164
154 152 153 156 158 162 160 161 173 166
161 159 162 167 168 159 158 153 154 159

(i) Represent the data given above by a grouped frequency distribution table, taking the class intervals as 160 - 165, 165 - 170, etc.
(ii) What can you conclude about their heights from the table?

Question 5. A study was conducted to find out the concentration of sulphur dioxide in the air in parts per million (ppm) of a certain city. The data obtained for 30 days is as follows:

0.03 0.08 0.08 0.09 0.04 0.17
0.16 0.05 0.02 0.06 0.18 0.20
0.11 0.08 0.12 0.13 0.22 0.07
0.08 0.01 0.10 0.06 0.09 0.18
0.11 0.07 0.05 0.07 0.01 0.04

(i) Make a grouped frequency distribution table for this data with class intervals as 0.00 - 0.04, 0.04 - 0.08, and so on.
(ii) For how many days, was the concentration of sulphur dioxide more than 0.11 parts per million?

Question 6. Three coins were tossed 30 times simultaneously. Each time the number of heads occurring was noted down as follows:

0 1 2 2 1 2 3 1 3 0
1 3 1 1 2 2 0 1 2 1
3 0 0 1 1 2 3 2 2 0

Prepare a frequency distribution table for the data given above.

Question 7. The value of π upto 50 decimal places is given below:

3.14159265358979323846264338327950288419716939937510

(i) Make a frequency distribution of the digits from 0 to 9 after the decimal point.
(ii) What are the most and the least frequently occurring digits?

Question 8. Thirty children were asked about the number of hours they watched TV programmes in the previous week. The results were found as follows:

1 6 2 3 5 12 5 8 4 8
10 3 4 12 2 8 15 1 17 6
3 2 8 5 9 6 8 7 14 12

(i) Make a grouped frequency distribution table for this data, taking class width 5 and one of the class intervals as 5 - 10.
(ii) How many children watched television for 15 or more hours a week?

Question 9. A company manufactures car batteries of a particular type. The lives (in years) of 40 such batteries were recorded as follows:

2.6 3.0 3.7 3.2 2.2 4.1 3.5 4.5
3.5 2.3 3.2 3.4 3.8 3.2 4.6 3.7
2.5 4.4 3.4 3.3 2.9 3.0 4.3 2.8
3.5 3.2 3.9 3.2 3.2 3.1 3.7 3.4
4.6 3.8 3.2 2.6 3.5 4.2 2.9 3.6

Construct a grouped frequency distribution table for this data, using class intervals of size 0.5 starting from the interval 2 - 2.5.

EXERCISE 14.3

Question 1. A survey conducted by an organisation for the cause of illness and death among the women between the ages 15 - 44 (in years) worldwide, found the following figures (in %):

(i) Represent the information given above graphically.
(ii) Which condition is the major cause of women's ill health and death worldwide?
(iii) Try to find out, with the help of your teacher, any two factors which play a major role in the cause in (ii) above being the major cause.

Question 2. The following data on the number of girls (to the nearest ten) per thousand boys in different sections of Indian society is given below

(i) Represent the information above by a bar graph.
(ii) In the classroom discuss what conclusions can be arrived at from the graph.

Question 3. Given below are the seats won by different political parties in the polling outcome of a state assembly elections:

(i) Draw a bar graph to represent the polling results.
(ii) Which political party won the maximum number of seats?

Question 4. The length of 40 leaves of a plant are measured correct to one millimetre, and the obtained data is represented in the following table:

(i) Draw a histogram to represent the given data.
(ii) Is there any other suitable graphical representation for the same data?
(iii) Is it correct to conclude that the maximum number of leaves are 153 mm long? Why?

Question 5. The following table gives the life times of 400 neon lamps:

(i) Represent the given information with the help of a histogram.
(ii) How many lamps have a life time of more than 700 hours?

Question 6. The following table gives the distribution of students of two sections according to the marks obtained by them: Represent the marks of the students of both the sections on the same graph by two frequency polygons. From the two polygons compare the performance of the two sections.

Question 7. The runs scored by two teams A and B on the first 60 balls in a cricket match are given below: Represent the data of both the teams on the same graph by frequency polygons. [Hint : First make the class intervals continuous.]
Draw a histogram to represent the data above.

Question 8. 100 surnames were randomly picked up from a local telephone directory and a frequency distribution of the number of letters in the English alphabet in the surnames was found as follows:

(i) Draw a histogram to depict the given information.
(ii) Write the class interval in which the maximum number of surnames lie.

EXERCISE 14.4

Question 1. The following number of goals were scored by a team in a series of 10 matches:

2, 3, 4, 5, 0, 1, 3, 3, 4, 3 Find the mean, median and mode of these scores.

Question 2. In a mathematics test given to 15 students, the following marks (out of 100) are recorded:

41, 39, 48, 52, 46, 62, 54, 40, 96, 52, 98, 40, 42, 52, 60 Find the mean, median and mode of this data.

Question 3. The following observations have been arranged in ascending order. If the median of the data is 63, find the value of x.

29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95

Question 4. Find the mode of 14, 25, 14, 28, 18, 17, 18, 14, 23, 22, 14, 18.

Question 5. Find the mean salary of 60 workers of a factory from the following table:

Question 6. Give one example of a situation in which (i) the mean is an appropriate measure of central tendency. (ii) the mean is not an appropriate measure of central tendency but the median is an appropriate measure of central tendency.


(Mathematics) Chapter 15 Probability


EXERCISE 15.1

Question 1. In a cricket match, a batswoman hits a boundary 6 times out of 30 balls she plays. Find the probability that she did not hit a boundary.

Question 2. 1500 families with 2 children were selected randomly, and the following data were recorded:Compute the probability of a family, chosen at random, having
(i) 2 girls
(ii) 1 girl
(iii) No girl Also check whether the sum of these probabilities is 1.

Question 3. Refer to Example 5, Section 14.4, Chapter 14. Find the probability that a student of the class was born in August.

Question 4. Three coins are tossed simultaneously 200 times with the following frequencies of different outcomes: If the three coins are simultaneously tossed again, compute the probability of 2 heads coming up.

Question 5. An organisation selected 2400 families at random and surveyed them to determine a relationship between income level and the number of vehicles in a family. The information gathered is listed in the table below: Suppose a family is chosen. Find the probability that the family chosen is

(i) earning Rs 10000 – 13000 per month and owning exactly 2 vehicles.
(ii) earning Rs 16000 or more per month and owning exactly 1 vehicle.
(iii) earning less than Rs 7000 per month and does not own any vehicle.
(iv) earning Rs 13000 – 16000 per month and owning more than 2 vehicles.
(v) owning not more than 1 vehicle.

Question 6. Refer to Table 14.7, Chapter 14.

(i) Find the probability that a student obtained less than 20% in the mathematics test.
(ii) Find the probability that a student obtained marks 60 or above.

Question 7. To know the opinion of the students about the subject statistics, a survey of 200 students was conducted. The data is recorded in the following table Find the probability that a student chosen at random
(i) likes statistics, (ii) does not like it.

Question 8. Refer to Q.2, Exercise 14.2. What is the empirical probability that an engineer lives:

(i) less than 7 km from her place of work?
(ii) more than or equal to 7 km from her place of work?
(iii) within 1 2 km from her place of work?

Question 9. Activity : Note the frequency of two-wheelers, three-wheelers and four-wheelers going past during a time interval, in front of your school gate. Find the probability that any one vehicle out of the total vehicles you have observed is a two-wheeler.

Question 10. Activity : Ask all the students in your class to write a 3-digit number. Choose any student from the room at random. What is the probability that the number written by her/him is divisible by 3? Remember that a number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.

Question 11. Eleven bags of wheat flour, each marked 5 kg, actually contained the following weights of flour (in kg):
4.97 5.05 5.08 5.03 5.00 5.06 5.08 4.98 5.04 5.07 5.00
Find the probability that any of these bags chosen at random contains more than 5 kg of flour.

Question 12. In Q.5, Exercise 14.2, you were asked to prepare a frequency distribution table, regarding the concentration of sulphur dioxide in the air in parts per million of a certain city for 30 days. Using this table, find the probability of the concentration of sulphur dioxide in the interval 0.12 - 0.16 on any of these days.

Question 13. In Q.1, Exercise 14.2, you were asked to prepare a frequency distribution table regarding the blood groups of 30 students of a class. Use this table to determine the probability that a student of this class, selected at random, has blood group AB.


 

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NCERT Science Question Paper (Class-9)

Posted: 29 May 2018 12:14 AM PDT

NCERT  Science Question Paper (Class-9)


Chapter 1 Matter In Our Surroundings


Question 1. Which of the following are matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, colddrink, smell of perfume.

Question 2. Give reasons for the following observation: The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.

Question 3. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show?

Question 4. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?

Question 5. The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density. (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.

Question 6. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characterisitcs of states of matter. (b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.

Question 7. Give reasons
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container. (c) A wooden table should be called a solid. (d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate expert.

Question 8. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.

Question 9. Convert the following temperature to celsius scale: a. 300 K b. 573 K.

Question 10. What is the physical state of water at: a. 250ºC b. 100ºC ? 3. For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state? 4. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.

Question 11. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?

Question 12. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?

Question 13. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it? 4. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?

Question 14. What type of clothes should we wear in summer?

Question 15 1. Convert the following temperatures to the Celsius scale.

(a) 300 K
(b) 573 K.
 
Question 16. Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale.

(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C.

Question 17. Give reason for the following observations.

(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.

Question 18. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles— water, sugar, oxygen.

Question 19. What is the physical state of water at—

(a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 100°C ?

Question 20. Give two reasons to justify—

(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

Question 21. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?

Question 22. What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?

Question 23. Name A,B,C,D,E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state


Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure


Question 1. What is meant by a pure substance?

Question 2. List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

Question 3. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.

Question 4. How are sol solution and suspension different from each other?

Question 5. To make a saturated solution 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

Question 6. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25ºC) which are miscible with each other?

Question 7. Name the technique to separate

(i) butter from curd
(ii) salt from sea-water
(iii) camphor from salt.

Question 8. What type of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallisation?

Question 9. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

  • cutting of trees

  • melting of butter in a pan

  • rusting of almirah

  • boiling of water to form steam

  • passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases

  • dissolving common salt in water

  • making a fruit salad with raw fruits and

  • burning of paper and wood.

Question 10. Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures. NCERT Solutions Intext Questions Page no.

Question 11. Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?

(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd.
(f) Oil from water.
(g) Tea leaves from tea.
(h) Iron pins from sand.
(i) Wheat grains from husk.
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.

Question 12. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.

Question 13. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution) .

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?

Question 14. Explain the following giving examples.

(a) saturated solution
(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension

Question 15. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture. soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.

Question 16. How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?

Question 17. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?

(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air.

Question 18. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

(a) Soil
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(d) Coal
(e) Soda water.

Question 19. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution.

Question 20. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

(a) Sodium
(b) Soil
(c) Sugar solution
(d) Silver
(e) Calcium carbonate
(f) Tin
(g) Silicon
(h) Coal
(i) Air
(j) Soap
(k) Methane
(l) Carbon dioxide
(m) Blood

Question 21. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle.


Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules


Quetion 1. In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon = dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that theseobservations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass. sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water

Quetion 2. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas?

Quetion 3. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of mass?

Quetion 4. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?

Quetion 5. Define the atomic mass unit.

Quetion 6. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?

Quetion 7.Following formulae:

(i) Al2(SO4)3
(ii) CaCl2
(iii) K2SO4
(iv) KNO3
(v) CaCO3.

Question 8. What is meant by the term chemical formula?

Question 9. How many atoms are present in a

(i) H2S molecule and
(ii) PO4 3– ion?

Question 10. Write down the formulae of

(i) sodium oxide
(ii) aluminium chloride
(iii) sodium suphide
(iv) magnesium hydroxide

Question 11. Write down the names of compounds represented by the

Question 12. Calculate the molecular masses of H2, O2, Cl2, CO2, CH4, C2H6, C2H4, NH3, CH3OH.

Question 13. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na2O, K2CO3, given atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, K = 39 u, C = 12 u, and O = 16 u.

Question 14. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 gram, what is the mass (in gram) of 1 atom of carbon?

Question 15. Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or 100 grams of iron (given, atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?

Question 16. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.

Question 17 . When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?

Question 18. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.

Question 19 Write the chemical formulae of the following.

(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate.

Question 20. Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds.

(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate.

Question 21. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.

(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HN O3

Question 22. What is the mass of—

(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)?

Question 23. Convert into mole.

(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide.

Question 24. What is the mass of:

(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?

Question 25. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.

Question 26. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide. (Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element. Atomic mass of Al = 27 u)


Chapter 4 Structure of The Atom


Question 1. What are canal rays?

Question 2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?

Question 3. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.

Question 4. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?

Question 5. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.

Question 6. What do you think would be the observation if the α-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?  

Question 7. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Question 8. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?

Question 9. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?

Question 10. For the symbol H,D and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them.

Question 12. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.

Question 13. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Question 14. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?

Question 15. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Question 16. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Question 17. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.

Question 18. Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements.

Question 19. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Question 20. Explain with examples

(i) Atomic number
(ii) Mass number
(iii) Isotopes
(iv) Isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes.

Question 21. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Question 22. If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes 79 35 Br (49.7%) and 81 35 Br (50.3%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.

Question 23. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes 16 8 X and 18 8 X in the sample?

Question 24. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.

Question 25. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under X Y Protons = 6 6 Neutrons = 6 8 Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?

Question 26. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1 2000 times that of proton.
(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine. Put tick () against correct choice and cross (×) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17

Question 27. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

(a) Atomic Nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron

Question 28. Isotopes of an element have

(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers.

Question 29. Number of valence electrons in Cl– ion are:

(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18

Question 30. Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

(a) 2,8
(b) 8,2,1
(c) 2,1,8
(d) 2,8,1.

Question 31. Complete the following table.


Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life


Question 1. Who discovered cells, and how?

Question 2. Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?

Question 3. How do substances like CO2 and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.

Question 4. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?  

Question 5. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Question 6. Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material?

Question 7. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen?

Question 8. Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?

Question 9. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell?

Question 10. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.

Question 12. How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?

Question 13. What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?

Question 14. What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?

Question 15. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?

Question 16. Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?

Question 17. How does an Amoeba obtain its food?

Question 18. What is osmosis?

Question 19. Carry out the following osmosis experiment: Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water. Now,

(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D.

Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups and answer the following:
(i) Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.
(ii) Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?
(iii) Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.


Chapter 7 Diversity In Living Organisms


Question 1. Why do we classify organisms?

Question 2. Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in lifeforms around you

Question 3. Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms?

(a) The place where they live.
(b) The kind of cells they are made of. Why?

Question 4. What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made?

Question 5. On what bases are plants and animals put into different categories?

Question 6. Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the so-called advanced organisms?

Question 7. Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?

Question 8. What is the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera or Protista?

Question 9. In which kingdom will you place an organism which is singlecelled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic?

Question 10. In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the largest number of organisms?

Question 11. Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?

Question 12. How are pteridophytes different from the phanerogams?

Question 13. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?

Question 14. How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals?

Question 15. How do annelid animals differ from arthropods?

Question 16. What are the differences between amphibians and reptiles?

Question 17. What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the mammalia group?

Question 18. What are the advantages of classifying organisms?

Question 19. How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing a hierarchy in classification?

Question 20. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.

Question 21. What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?

Question 22. How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants different from the criteria for deciding the subgroups among animals?

Question 23. Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups.


Chapter 8 Motion


Question 1. An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacement? If yes, support your answer with an example.

Question 2. A farmer moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10 m in 40 s. What will be the magnitude of displacement of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds?

Question 3. Which of the following is true for displacement?

(a) It cannot be zero.
(b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object.

Question 4. Distinguish between speed and velocity.

Question 5. Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to its average speed?

Question 6. What does the odometer of an automobile measure?

Question 7. What does the path of an object look like when it is in uniform motion?

Question 5. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five minutes. What was the distance of the spaceship from the ground station? The signal travels at the speed of

Question 8. When will you say a body is in

(i) uniform acceleration?
(ii) nonuniform acceleration?

Question 9. A bus decreases its speed from 80 km h–1 to 60 km h–1 in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.

Question 10. A train starting from a railway station and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed 40 km h–1 in 10 minutes. Find its acceleration.

Question 11. What is the nature of the distance-time graphs for uniform and non-uniform motion of an object?

Question 12. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 13. What can you say about the motion of an object if its speedtime graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 14. What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-time graph?

Question 15. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s-2 for 2 minutes. Find

(a) The speed acquired,
(b) The distance travelled

Question 16. A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km h–1. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of – 0.5 m s-2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.

Question 17. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2 cm s-2. What will be its velocity 3 s after the start?

Question 18. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 m s-2. What distance will it cover in 10 s after start?

Question 19. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5 m s-1. If the acceleration of the stone during its motion is 10 m s–2 in the downward direction, what will be the height attained by the stone and how much time will it take to reach there?

Question 20. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20 s?

Question 21. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes 50 seconds and then turns around and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging

(a) from A to B and
(b) from A to C?

Question 22. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be 20 km h–1. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the average speed is 40 km h–1. What is the average speed for Abdul’s trip?

Question 23. A motorboat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a constant rate of 3.0 m s–2 for 8.0 s. How far does the boat travel during this time?

Question 24. A driver of a car travelling at 52 km h–1 applies the brakes and accelerates uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 5 s. Another driver going at 3 km h–1 in another car applies his brakes slowly and stops in 10 s. On the same graph paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars travelled farther after the brakes were applied?


Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion


Question 1. Which of the following has more inertia:

(a) a rubber ball and a stone of the same size?
(b) a bicycle and a train?
(c) a fiverupees coin and a one-rupee coin?

Question 2. In the following example, try to identify the number of times the velocity of the ball changes: “A football player kicks a football to another player of his team who kicks the football towards the goal. The goalkeeper of the opposite team collects the football and kicks it towards a player of his own team”. Also identify the agent supplying the force in each case.

Question 3. Explain why some of the leaves may get detached from a tree if we vigorously shake its branch.

Question 4. Why do you fall in the forward direction when a moving bus brakes to a stop and fall backwards when it accelerates from rest?

Question 4. If action is always equal to the reaction, explain how a horse can pull a cart.

Question 5. Explain, why is it difficult for a fireman to hold a hose, which ejects large amounts of water at a high velocity.

Question 6. From a rifle of mass 4 kg, a bullet of mass 50 g is fired with an initial velocity of 35 m s–1. Calculate the initial recoil velocity of the rifle.

Question 7. Two objects of masses 100 g and 200 g are moving along the same line and direction with velocities of 2 m s–1 and 1 m s–1, respectively. They collide and after the collision, the first object moves at a velocity of 1.67 m s–1. Determine the velocity of the second object.

Question 8. An object experiences a net zero external unbalanced force. Is it possible for the object to be travelling with a non-zero velocity? If yes, state the conditions that must be placed on the magnitude and direction of the velocity. If no, provide a reason.

Question 9. When a carpet is beaten with a stick, dust comes out of it. Explain.

Question 10. Why is it advised to tie any luggage kept on the roof of a bus with a rope?

Question 11. A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on a level ground. After covering a short distance, the ball comes to rest. The ball slows to a stop because

(a) the batsman did not hit the ball hard enough.
(b) velocity is proportional to the force exerted on the ball.
(c) there is a force on the ball opposing the motion.
(d) there is no unbalanced force on the ball, so the ball would want to come to rest.

Question 12. A truck starts from rest and rolls down a hill with a constant acceleration. It travels a distance of 400 m in 20 s. Find its acceleration. Find the force acting on it if its mass is 7 metric tonnes (Hint: 1 metric tonne = 1000 kg.)

Question 13. A stone of 1 kg is thrown with a velocity of 20 m s–1 across the frozen surface of a lake and comes to rest after travelling a distance of 50 m. What is the force of friction between the stone and the ice?

Question 14. A 8000 kg engine pulls a train of 5 wagons, each of 2000 kg, along a horizontal track. If the engine exerts a force of 40000 N and the track offers a friction force of 5000 N, then calculate:

(a) the net accelerating force
(b) the acceleration of the train
(c) the force of wagon 1 on wagon 2.

Question 15. An automobile vehicle has a mass of 1500 kg. What must be the force between the vehicle and road if the vehicle is to be stopped with a negative acceleration of 1.7 m s–2?

Question 16. What is the momentum of an object of mass m, moving with a velocity v?

(a) (mv)2
(b) mv2
(c) ½ mv2
(d) mv

Question 17. Using a horizontal force of 200 N, we intend to move a wooden cabinet across a floor at a constant velocity. What is the friction force that will be exerted on the cabinet?

Question 18. Two objects, each of mass 1.5 kg, are moving in the same straight line but in opposite directions. The velocity of each


Chapter 10 Gravitation


Question 1. State the universal law of gravitation.

Question 2. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and an object on the surface of the earth.

Question 3. What do you mean by free fall?

Question 4. What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity?

Question 5. What are the differences between the mass of an object and its weight?

Question 6. Why is the weight of an object on the moon 1 6 th its weight on the earth?

Question 7. Why is it difficult to hold a school bag having a strap made of a thin and strong string?

Question 8. What do you mean by buoyancy?

Question 9. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of water?

Question 10. You find your mass to be 42 kg on a weighing machine. Is your mass more or less than 42 kg?

Question 11. You have a bag of cotton and an iron bar, each indicating a mass of 100 kg when measured on a weighing machine. In reality, one is heavier than other. Can you say which one is heavier and why?

Question 12. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them is reduced to half ?

Question 13. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then, a heavy object does not fall faster than a light object?

Question 14. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object on its surface? (Mass of the earth is 6 × 1024 kg and radius of the earth is 6.4 × 106 m.)

Question 15. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the earth attract the moon with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as the force with which the moon attracts the earth? Why?

Question 16. If the moon attracts the earth, why does the earth not move towards the moon?

Question 17. What happens to the force between two objects, if

(i) the mass of one object is doubled?
(ii) the distance between the objects is doubled and tripled?
(iii) the masses of both objects are doubled?

Question 18. What is the importance of universal law of gravitation?

Question 19. What is the acceleration of free fall?

Question 20. What do we call the gravitational force between the earth and an object?

Question 21. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the instruction of one of his friends. He hands over the same when he meets him at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of gold bought? If not, why? [Hint: The value of g is greater at the poles than at the equator.]

Question 22. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that is crumpled into a ball?

Question 23. Gravitational force on the surface of the moon is only 1 6 as strong as gravitational force on the earth. What is the weight in newtons of a 10 kg object on the moon and on the earth?

Question 24. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate

(i) the maximum height to which it rises,
(ii) the total time it takes to return to the surface of the earth.

Question 25. A stone is released from the top of a tower of height 19.6 m. Calculate its final velocity.

Question 26. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s. Taking g = 10 m/s2, find the maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net displacement and the total distance covered by the stone?

Question 27. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the Sun, given that the mass of the earth = 6 × 1024 kg and of the Sun = 2 × 1030 kg. The average distance between the two is 1.5 × 1011 m.

Question 28. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time another stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s. Calculate when and where the two stones will meet.

Question 29. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 s. Find

(a) the velocity with which it was thrown up,
(b) the maximum height it reaches, and
(c) its position after 4 s.

Question 30. In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?

Question 31. Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water?

Question 32. The volume of 50 g of a substance is 20 cm3. If the density of water is 1 g cm–3, will the substance float or sink?

Question 33. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is 350 cm3. Will the packet float or sink in water if the density of water is 1 g cm–3? What will be the mass of the water displaced by this packet?


Chapter 11 Work And Energy


Question 1. A force of 7 N acts on an object. The displacement is, say 8 m, in the direction of the force (Fig. 11.3). Let us take it that the force acts on the object through the displacement. What is the work done in this case?

Question 1. When do we say that work is done?

Question 2. Write an expression for the work done when a force is acting on an object in the direction of its displacement.

Question 3. Define 1 J of work.

Question 4. A pair of bullocks exerts a force of 140 N on a plough. The field being ploughed is 15 m long. How much work is
done in ploughing the length of the field?

Question 1. What is the kinetic energy of an object?

Question 2. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.

Question 3. The kinetic energy of an object of mass, m moving with a velocity of 5 m s–1 is 25 J. What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased three times?

Question 1. What is power?

Question 2. Define 1 watt of power.

Question 3. A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 s. What is its power?

Question 4. Define average power.

Question 1. Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not work is done in the light of your understanding of the term ‘work’.

  •  Suma is swimming in a pond.

  •  A donkey is carrying a load on its back.

  •  A wind-mill is lifting water from a well.

  •  A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis

  •  An engine is pulling a train.

  •  Food grains are getting dried in the sun.

  •  A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.

Question 2. An object thrown at a certain angle to the ground moves in a curved path and falls back to the ground. The initial and the final points of the path of the object lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done by the force of gravity on the object?

Question 3. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.

Question 4. Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 m s–1 to 2 m s–1. Calculate the work done by the force.

Question 5. A mass of 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B. If the line joining A and B is horizontal, what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force? Explain your answer.

Question 6. The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does this violate the law of conservation of energy? Why?

Question 7. What are the various energy transformations that occur when you are riding a bicycle?

Question 8. Does the transfer of energy take place when you push a huge rock with all your might and fail to move it? Where is the energy you spend going?

Question 9. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a month. How much energy is this in joules?

Question 10. An object of mass 40 kg is raised to a height of 5 m above the ground. What is its potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half-way down.

Question 11. What is the work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving round the earth? Justify your answer.

Question 12. Can there be displacement of an object in the absence of any force acting on it? Think. Discuss this question with your friends and teacher.

Question 13. A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he done some work or not? Justify your answer.

Question 14. An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in 10 hours?

Question 15. Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate. Why does the bob eventually come to rest? What happens to its energy eventually? Is it a violation of the law of conservation of energy?

Question 16. An object of mass, m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest?

Question 17. Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 km/h?

Question 18. In each of the following a force, F is acting on an object of mass, m. The direction of displacement is from west to east shown by the longer arrow. Observe the diagrams carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive or zero.

Question 19. Soni says that the acceleration in an object could be zero even when several forces are acting on it. Do you agree with her? Why?

Question 20. Find the energy in kW h consumed in 10 hours by four devices of power 500 W each.

Question 21. A freely falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What happenes to its kinetic energy?


Chapter 12 Sound


Question 1. Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.

Question 2. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?

Question 3. Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?

Question 4. Which wave property determines (a) loudness, (b) pitch?

Question 5. Guess which sound has a higher pitch: guitar or car horn?

Question 6. What are wavelength, frequency, time period and amplitude of a sound wave?

Question 7. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed?

Question 8. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 m/s in a given medium.

Question 9. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the source?

Question 10. In which of the three media, air, water or iron, does sound travel the fastest at a particular temperature?

Question 11. An echo returned in 3 s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source, given that the speed of sound is 342 m s–1?

Question 12. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved?

Question 13. What is the audible range of the average human ear?

Question 14. What is the range of frequencies associated with (a) Infrasound? (b) Ultrasound?

Question 15. A submarine emits a sonar pulse, which returns from an underwater cliff in 1.02 s. If the speed of sound in salt water is 1531 m/s, how far away is the cliff?

Question 16. What is sound and how is it produced?

Question 17. Describe with the help of a diagram, how compressions and rarefactions are produced in air near a source of sound.

Question 18. Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.

Question 19. Why is sound wave called a longitudinal wave?

Question 20. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a dark
room?

Question 21. Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen, why?

Question 22. A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 m s–1.

Question 23. Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the second child.

Question 24. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?

Question 25. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.

Question 26. When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remains the same. Do you hear echo sound on a hotter day?

Question 27. Give two practical applications of reflection of sound waves.

Question 28. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g = 10 m s–2 and speed of sound = 340 m s–1.

Question 29. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m s–1. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?

Question 30. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?

Question 31. What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?

Question 32. Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch a prey.

Question 33. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?

Question 34. Explain the working and application of a sonar.

Question 35. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625 m.

Question 36. Explain how defects in a metal block can be detected using ultrasound.

Question 37. Explain how the human ear works.


Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill


Question 1. State any two conditions essential for good health.

Question 2. State any two conditions essential for being free of disease.

Question 3. Are the answers to the above questions necessarily the same or different? Why? 

Question 4. List any three reasons why you would think that you are sick and ought to see a doctor. If only one of these symptoms were present, would you still go to the doctor? Why or why not?

Question 5. In which of the following case do you think the long-term effects on your health are likely to be most unpleasant?

  •  if you get jaundice,

  •  if you get lice,

  •  if you get acne. Why?

Question 6. Why are we normally advised to take bland and nourishing food when we are sick?

Question 7. What are the different means by which infectious diseases are spread?

Question 8. What precautions can you take in your school to reduce the incidence of infectious diseases?

Question 9. What is immunisation?

Question 10. What are the immunisation programmes available at the nearest health centre in your locality?

Question 11. How many times did you fall ill in the last one year? What were the illnesses?

(a) Think of one change you could make in your habits in order to avoid any of/most of the above illnesses.
(b) Think of one change you would wish for in your surroundings in order to avoid any of/most of the above illnesses.

Question 12. A doctor/nurse/health-worker is exposed to more sick people than others in the community. Find out how she/he avoids getting sick herself/himself.

Question 13. Conduct a survey in your neighbourhood to find out what the three most common diseases are. Suggest three steps that could be taken by your local authorities to bring down the incidence of these diseases.

Question 14. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that she/he is sick. What would help us to find out

(a) that the baby is sick?
(b) what is the sickness?

Question 15. Under which of the following conditions is a person most likely to fall sick?

(a) when she is recovering from malaria.
(b) when she has recovered from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken-pox.
(c) when she is on a four-day fast after recovering from malaria and is taking care of someone suffering from chicken-pox. Why?

Question 16. Under which of the following conditions are you most likely to fall sick?

(a) when you are taking examinations.
(b) when you have travelled by bus and train for two days.
(c) when your friend is suffering from measles. Why?


Chapter 14 Natural Resources


Question 1. How is our atmosphere different from the atmospheres on Venus and Mars?

Question 2. How does the atmosphere act as a blanket?

Question 3. What causes winds?

Question 4. How are clouds formed?

Question 5. List any three human activities that you think would lead to air pollution.

Question 6. Why do organisms need water?

Question 7. What is the major source of fresh water in the city/town/village where you live?

Question 8. Do you know of any activity which may be polluting this water source?

Question 9. How is soil formed?

Question 10. What is soil erosion?

Question 11. What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion?

Question 12. What are the different states in which water is found during the water cycle?

Question 13. Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen.

Question 14. List any three human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide content of air.

Question 15. What is the greenhouse effect?

Question 16. What are the two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere?


Chapter 15 Improvement In Food Resources


Question 1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?

Question 2. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?

Question 3. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?

Question 4. What are macro-nutrients and why are they called macronutrients?

Question 5. How do plants get nutrients?

Question 6. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in maintaining soil fertility.

Question 7. Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits? Why?

(a) Farmers use high-quality seeds, do not adopt irrigation or use fertilizers.
(b) Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation and use fertilizer.
(c) Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilizer and use crop protection measures.

Question 8. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting crops?

Question 9. What factors may be responsible for losses of grains during storage?

Question 10. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?

Question 11. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?

Question 12. What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?

Question 13. Discuss the implications of the following statement: “It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre food stuff (which is unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious animal protein food.”

Question 14. How are fish obtained?

Question15. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?

Question 16. What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production?

Question 17. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?

Question 18. Explain any one method of crop production which ensures high yield.

Question 19. Why are manure and fertilizers used in fields?

Question 20. What are the advantages of inter-cropping and crop rotation?

Question 21. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?

Question 22. How do storage grain losses occur?

Question 23. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?

Question 24. What are the benefits of cattle farming?

Question 25. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping?

Question 26. How do you differentiate between capture fishing, mariculture and aquaculture?


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Posted: 28 May 2018 10:20 PM PDT